How to find a confidence interval of a binomial distribution using a simulated random sample? ...
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How to find a confidence interval of a binomial distribution using a simulated random sample?
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I have a random sample of 1000 values of deviates from binomial distribution with n = 52 and p^
So I have 1000 values from the distribution.
How can I find a 95% confidence interval for the true value of p? (Without using normal distribution approximations).
It seems I just have random values as a sample to find two values from within which have a 95% probability of containing p?
statistics statistical-inference binomial-distribution
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have a random sample of 1000 values of deviates from binomial distribution with n = 52 and p^
So I have 1000 values from the distribution.
How can I find a 95% confidence interval for the true value of p? (Without using normal distribution approximations).
It seems I just have random values as a sample to find two values from within which have a 95% probability of containing p?
statistics statistical-inference binomial-distribution
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have a random sample of 1000 values of deviates from binomial distribution with n = 52 and p^
So I have 1000 values from the distribution.
How can I find a 95% confidence interval for the true value of p? (Without using normal distribution approximations).
It seems I just have random values as a sample to find two values from within which have a 95% probability of containing p?
statistics statistical-inference binomial-distribution
$endgroup$
I have a random sample of 1000 values of deviates from binomial distribution with n = 52 and p^
So I have 1000 values from the distribution.
How can I find a 95% confidence interval for the true value of p? (Without using normal distribution approximations).
It seems I just have random values as a sample to find two values from within which have a 95% probability of containing p?
statistics statistical-inference binomial-distribution
statistics statistical-inference binomial-distribution
edited Mar 19 at 15:56
Pumpkinpeach
asked Mar 17 at 17:46
PumpkinpeachPumpkinpeach
578
578
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
By p^
, I assume you mean $hat p = 44/52,$ the estimate of the cure rate $p$ as found in the experiment done by the manufacturer of the new drug.
In R, $B = 1000$ observations from $mathsf{Binom}(n=52,, p = 44/52)$ are generated as follows:
set.seed(2019); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
Then we see that (a centrally located) 95% of the values $x/52$ lie
within the interval $(0.73, 0.94).$
set.seed(318); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
quantile(x/52, c(.025, .975))
2.5% 97.5%
0.7307692 0.9423077
This is close to the same interval we get with
the Wald 95% confidence interval $hat p pm 1.96sqrt{frac{hat p(1-hat p)}{52}},$ which
amounts to $(0.748, 0.944).$
p.est = 44/52; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7480870 0.9442207
Notes: (1) Of course, without simulation, we could have obtained a more accurate version of the first
interval in R, using the
quantile function (inverse CDF) of the appropriate
binomial distribution.
qbinom(c(.025,.975), 52, 44/52)/52
[1] 0.7500000 0.9423077
(2) Especially for $n$ as small as 52, the Agresti-Coull ("plus four") CI has better coverage properties than the (asymptotic) Wald interval. Perhaps see this Q & A.
n = 56; p.est = 46/n; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7173299 0.9255273
$endgroup$
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
By p^
, I assume you mean $hat p = 44/52,$ the estimate of the cure rate $p$ as found in the experiment done by the manufacturer of the new drug.
In R, $B = 1000$ observations from $mathsf{Binom}(n=52,, p = 44/52)$ are generated as follows:
set.seed(2019); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
Then we see that (a centrally located) 95% of the values $x/52$ lie
within the interval $(0.73, 0.94).$
set.seed(318); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
quantile(x/52, c(.025, .975))
2.5% 97.5%
0.7307692 0.9423077
This is close to the same interval we get with
the Wald 95% confidence interval $hat p pm 1.96sqrt{frac{hat p(1-hat p)}{52}},$ which
amounts to $(0.748, 0.944).$
p.est = 44/52; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7480870 0.9442207
Notes: (1) Of course, without simulation, we could have obtained a more accurate version of the first
interval in R, using the
quantile function (inverse CDF) of the appropriate
binomial distribution.
qbinom(c(.025,.975), 52, 44/52)/52
[1] 0.7500000 0.9423077
(2) Especially for $n$ as small as 52, the Agresti-Coull ("plus four") CI has better coverage properties than the (asymptotic) Wald interval. Perhaps see this Q & A.
n = 56; p.est = 46/n; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7173299 0.9255273
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By p^
, I assume you mean $hat p = 44/52,$ the estimate of the cure rate $p$ as found in the experiment done by the manufacturer of the new drug.
In R, $B = 1000$ observations from $mathsf{Binom}(n=52,, p = 44/52)$ are generated as follows:
set.seed(2019); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
Then we see that (a centrally located) 95% of the values $x/52$ lie
within the interval $(0.73, 0.94).$
set.seed(318); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
quantile(x/52, c(.025, .975))
2.5% 97.5%
0.7307692 0.9423077
This is close to the same interval we get with
the Wald 95% confidence interval $hat p pm 1.96sqrt{frac{hat p(1-hat p)}{52}},$ which
amounts to $(0.748, 0.944).$
p.est = 44/52; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7480870 0.9442207
Notes: (1) Of course, without simulation, we could have obtained a more accurate version of the first
interval in R, using the
quantile function (inverse CDF) of the appropriate
binomial distribution.
qbinom(c(.025,.975), 52, 44/52)/52
[1] 0.7500000 0.9423077
(2) Especially for $n$ as small as 52, the Agresti-Coull ("plus four") CI has better coverage properties than the (asymptotic) Wald interval. Perhaps see this Q & A.
n = 56; p.est = 46/n; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7173299 0.9255273
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By p^
, I assume you mean $hat p = 44/52,$ the estimate of the cure rate $p$ as found in the experiment done by the manufacturer of the new drug.
In R, $B = 1000$ observations from $mathsf{Binom}(n=52,, p = 44/52)$ are generated as follows:
set.seed(2019); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
Then we see that (a centrally located) 95% of the values $x/52$ lie
within the interval $(0.73, 0.94).$
set.seed(318); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
quantile(x/52, c(.025, .975))
2.5% 97.5%
0.7307692 0.9423077
This is close to the same interval we get with
the Wald 95% confidence interval $hat p pm 1.96sqrt{frac{hat p(1-hat p)}{52}},$ which
amounts to $(0.748, 0.944).$
p.est = 44/52; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7480870 0.9442207
Notes: (1) Of course, without simulation, we could have obtained a more accurate version of the first
interval in R, using the
quantile function (inverse CDF) of the appropriate
binomial distribution.
qbinom(c(.025,.975), 52, 44/52)/52
[1] 0.7500000 0.9423077
(2) Especially for $n$ as small as 52, the Agresti-Coull ("plus four") CI has better coverage properties than the (asymptotic) Wald interval. Perhaps see this Q & A.
n = 56; p.est = 46/n; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7173299 0.9255273
$endgroup$
By p^
, I assume you mean $hat p = 44/52,$ the estimate of the cure rate $p$ as found in the experiment done by the manufacturer of the new drug.
In R, $B = 1000$ observations from $mathsf{Binom}(n=52,, p = 44/52)$ are generated as follows:
set.seed(2019); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
Then we see that (a centrally located) 95% of the values $x/52$ lie
within the interval $(0.73, 0.94).$
set.seed(318); x = rbinom(1000, 52, 44/52)
quantile(x/52, c(.025, .975))
2.5% 97.5%
0.7307692 0.9423077
This is close to the same interval we get with
the Wald 95% confidence interval $hat p pm 1.96sqrt{frac{hat p(1-hat p)}{52}},$ which
amounts to $(0.748, 0.944).$
p.est = 44/52; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7480870 0.9442207
Notes: (1) Of course, without simulation, we could have obtained a more accurate version of the first
interval in R, using the
quantile function (inverse CDF) of the appropriate
binomial distribution.
qbinom(c(.025,.975), 52, 44/52)/52
[1] 0.7500000 0.9423077
(2) Especially for $n$ as small as 52, the Agresti-Coull ("plus four") CI has better coverage properties than the (asymptotic) Wald interval. Perhaps see this Q & A.
n = 56; p.est = 46/n; pm=c(-1,1)
p.est + pm*1.96*sqrt(p.est*(1-p.est)/52)
[1] 0.7173299 0.9255273
edited Mar 18 at 23:11
answered Mar 18 at 22:37
BruceETBruceET
36.2k71540
36.2k71540
add a comment |
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