Proof of convergence for non-absolute sequenceProving the convergence of $a_n = frac{n}{n+sqrt n}$Convergence...

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Proof of convergence for non-absolute sequence


Proving the convergence of $a_n = frac{n}{n+sqrt n}$Convergence of Monotone Sequence in Affine-Extended RealsNon-increasing Monotone Sequence Convergence ProofEvaluating $lim_{n to infty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k 2^k} $Suppose that the function $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$ is monotonically increasing and bounded. Prove that the $lim_{xrightarrow a}f(x)$ existsCheck my Work: Series ConvergenceProving that the limit of the product of these two sequences is zeroA sufficient condition for a sequence to converge if arithmetic mean of the sequence converges?Convergence of sequence of real functionIf a sequence of absolute values is bounded, does it then converge?













0












$begingroup$


I've established that the bounded sequence $A_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}|x_{k}|$ converges, since it is bounded and monotonically increasing.
Now I'm trying to prove that the sequence $B_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}x_{k}$ (from the same $x_{k}$) is also convergent. I'm trying to use the following fact: $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$ for $n>m$. Now since $A_{n}$ is convergent I know there exists a $N in mathbb{N}$ such that when $n,m > mathbb{N}$ and $epsilon>0$ we have $|A_{n}-L|<epsilon$ and $|A_{m}-L|<epsilon$.



Can I then just say $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m} = A_{n}-L+L-A_{m} leq |A_{n}-L|+|A_{m}-L| leq 2epsilon$?



I'm a bit confused since I'm not quite sure if it is actually true that $A_{n}$ converges to $L$ in stead of $|x_{k}|$. Because I think that if $A_{n}$ converges to $L$, then I would suppose $x_{k}$ would have to tend to $0$, but I don't see why this would be the case.



As you are probably able to see, I'm confused and any suggestions would be more than welcome.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I've established that the bounded sequence $A_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}|x_{k}|$ converges, since it is bounded and monotonically increasing.
    Now I'm trying to prove that the sequence $B_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}x_{k}$ (from the same $x_{k}$) is also convergent. I'm trying to use the following fact: $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$ for $n>m$. Now since $A_{n}$ is convergent I know there exists a $N in mathbb{N}$ such that when $n,m > mathbb{N}$ and $epsilon>0$ we have $|A_{n}-L|<epsilon$ and $|A_{m}-L|<epsilon$.



    Can I then just say $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m} = A_{n}-L+L-A_{m} leq |A_{n}-L|+|A_{m}-L| leq 2epsilon$?



    I'm a bit confused since I'm not quite sure if it is actually true that $A_{n}$ converges to $L$ in stead of $|x_{k}|$. Because I think that if $A_{n}$ converges to $L$, then I would suppose $x_{k}$ would have to tend to $0$, but I don't see why this would be the case.



    As you are probably able to see, I'm confused and any suggestions would be more than welcome.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I've established that the bounded sequence $A_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}|x_{k}|$ converges, since it is bounded and monotonically increasing.
      Now I'm trying to prove that the sequence $B_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}x_{k}$ (from the same $x_{k}$) is also convergent. I'm trying to use the following fact: $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$ for $n>m$. Now since $A_{n}$ is convergent I know there exists a $N in mathbb{N}$ such that when $n,m > mathbb{N}$ and $epsilon>0$ we have $|A_{n}-L|<epsilon$ and $|A_{m}-L|<epsilon$.



      Can I then just say $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m} = A_{n}-L+L-A_{m} leq |A_{n}-L|+|A_{m}-L| leq 2epsilon$?



      I'm a bit confused since I'm not quite sure if it is actually true that $A_{n}$ converges to $L$ in stead of $|x_{k}|$. Because I think that if $A_{n}$ converges to $L$, then I would suppose $x_{k}$ would have to tend to $0$, but I don't see why this would be the case.



      As you are probably able to see, I'm confused and any suggestions would be more than welcome.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I've established that the bounded sequence $A_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}|x_{k}|$ converges, since it is bounded and monotonically increasing.
      Now I'm trying to prove that the sequence $B_{n}=sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}x_{k}$ (from the same $x_{k}$) is also convergent. I'm trying to use the following fact: $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$ for $n>m$. Now since $A_{n}$ is convergent I know there exists a $N in mathbb{N}$ such that when $n,m > mathbb{N}$ and $epsilon>0$ we have $|A_{n}-L|<epsilon$ and $|A_{m}-L|<epsilon$.



      Can I then just say $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=A_{n}-A_{m} = A_{n}-L+L-A_{m} leq |A_{n}-L|+|A_{m}-L| leq 2epsilon$?



      I'm a bit confused since I'm not quite sure if it is actually true that $A_{n}$ converges to $L$ in stead of $|x_{k}|$. Because I think that if $A_{n}$ converges to $L$, then I would suppose $x_{k}$ would have to tend to $0$, but I don't see why this would be the case.



      As you are probably able to see, I'm confused and any suggestions would be more than welcome.







      real-analysis sequences-and-series limits analysis






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 10 at 22:10









      MathbeginnerMathbeginner

      1738




      1738






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          You should use Cauchy criterion.



          For $varepsilon > 0$, because $(A_n)$ converges there exists $N$ such that for $p > q geq N$,
          $$|A_p - A_q| leq varepsilon, text{ i.e. } sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          So for $p>q geq N$,
          $$|B_p - B_q| = left| sum_{k=q+1}^p x_k right| leq sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          This proves that $(B_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, and if your space is complete, it converges.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I see what you mean and how this would work. But does that also mean my approach is wrong?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:16










          • $begingroup$
            You say that $|B_n - B_m|=A_n-A_m$, but this has no reason to be true in general...
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:19










          • $begingroup$
            I would argue that $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n} x_{k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^{m} x_{k}|=|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} x_{k}|=sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} |x_{k}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$. Right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:22












          • $begingroup$
            $|sum x_k|$ is not the same thing as $sum |x_k|$. The basic fact about $|.|$ is the triangle inequality $|sum x_k| leq sum |x_k|$. If you never heard about that, it is normal you are confused with absolute convergence questions ;)
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, I should have written $|B_{n}-B_{m}| leq A_{n}-A_{m}$, but then I could use the same road I did, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:26











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          You should use Cauchy criterion.



          For $varepsilon > 0$, because $(A_n)$ converges there exists $N$ such that for $p > q geq N$,
          $$|A_p - A_q| leq varepsilon, text{ i.e. } sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          So for $p>q geq N$,
          $$|B_p - B_q| = left| sum_{k=q+1}^p x_k right| leq sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          This proves that $(B_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, and if your space is complete, it converges.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I see what you mean and how this would work. But does that also mean my approach is wrong?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:16










          • $begingroup$
            You say that $|B_n - B_m|=A_n-A_m$, but this has no reason to be true in general...
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:19










          • $begingroup$
            I would argue that $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n} x_{k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^{m} x_{k}|=|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} x_{k}|=sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} |x_{k}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$. Right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:22












          • $begingroup$
            $|sum x_k|$ is not the same thing as $sum |x_k|$. The basic fact about $|.|$ is the triangle inequality $|sum x_k| leq sum |x_k|$. If you never heard about that, it is normal you are confused with absolute convergence questions ;)
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, I should have written $|B_{n}-B_{m}| leq A_{n}-A_{m}$, but then I could use the same road I did, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:26
















          1












          $begingroup$

          You should use Cauchy criterion.



          For $varepsilon > 0$, because $(A_n)$ converges there exists $N$ such that for $p > q geq N$,
          $$|A_p - A_q| leq varepsilon, text{ i.e. } sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          So for $p>q geq N$,
          $$|B_p - B_q| = left| sum_{k=q+1}^p x_k right| leq sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          This proves that $(B_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, and if your space is complete, it converges.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I see what you mean and how this would work. But does that also mean my approach is wrong?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:16










          • $begingroup$
            You say that $|B_n - B_m|=A_n-A_m$, but this has no reason to be true in general...
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:19










          • $begingroup$
            I would argue that $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n} x_{k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^{m} x_{k}|=|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} x_{k}|=sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} |x_{k}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$. Right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:22












          • $begingroup$
            $|sum x_k|$ is not the same thing as $sum |x_k|$. The basic fact about $|.|$ is the triangle inequality $|sum x_k| leq sum |x_k|$. If you never heard about that, it is normal you are confused with absolute convergence questions ;)
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, I should have written $|B_{n}-B_{m}| leq A_{n}-A_{m}$, but then I could use the same road I did, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:26














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          You should use Cauchy criterion.



          For $varepsilon > 0$, because $(A_n)$ converges there exists $N$ such that for $p > q geq N$,
          $$|A_p - A_q| leq varepsilon, text{ i.e. } sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          So for $p>q geq N$,
          $$|B_p - B_q| = left| sum_{k=q+1}^p x_k right| leq sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          This proves that $(B_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, and if your space is complete, it converges.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          You should use Cauchy criterion.



          For $varepsilon > 0$, because $(A_n)$ converges there exists $N$ such that for $p > q geq N$,
          $$|A_p - A_q| leq varepsilon, text{ i.e. } sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          So for $p>q geq N$,
          $$|B_p - B_q| = left| sum_{k=q+1}^p x_k right| leq sum_{k=q+1}^p |x_k| leq varepsilon$$



          This proves that $(B_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, and if your space is complete, it converges.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 10 at 22:27

























          answered Mar 10 at 22:15









          TheSilverDoeTheSilverDoe

          3,866112




          3,866112












          • $begingroup$
            I see what you mean and how this would work. But does that also mean my approach is wrong?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:16










          • $begingroup$
            You say that $|B_n - B_m|=A_n-A_m$, but this has no reason to be true in general...
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:19










          • $begingroup$
            I would argue that $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n} x_{k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^{m} x_{k}|=|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} x_{k}|=sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} |x_{k}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$. Right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:22












          • $begingroup$
            $|sum x_k|$ is not the same thing as $sum |x_k|$. The basic fact about $|.|$ is the triangle inequality $|sum x_k| leq sum |x_k|$. If you never heard about that, it is normal you are confused with absolute convergence questions ;)
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, I should have written $|B_{n}-B_{m}| leq A_{n}-A_{m}$, but then I could use the same road I did, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:26


















          • $begingroup$
            I see what you mean and how this would work. But does that also mean my approach is wrong?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:16










          • $begingroup$
            You say that $|B_n - B_m|=A_n-A_m$, but this has no reason to be true in general...
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:19










          • $begingroup$
            I would argue that $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n} x_{k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^{m} x_{k}|=|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} x_{k}|=sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} |x_{k}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$. Right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:22












          • $begingroup$
            $|sum x_k|$ is not the same thing as $sum |x_k|$. The basic fact about $|.|$ is the triangle inequality $|sum x_k| leq sum |x_k|$. If you never heard about that, it is normal you are confused with absolute convergence questions ;)
            $endgroup$
            – TheSilverDoe
            Mar 10 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, I should have written $|B_{n}-B_{m}| leq A_{n}-A_{m}$, but then I could use the same road I did, right?
            $endgroup$
            – Mathbeginner
            Mar 10 at 22:26
















          $begingroup$
          I see what you mean and how this would work. But does that also mean my approach is wrong?
          $endgroup$
          – Mathbeginner
          Mar 10 at 22:16




          $begingroup$
          I see what you mean and how this would work. But does that also mean my approach is wrong?
          $endgroup$
          – Mathbeginner
          Mar 10 at 22:16












          $begingroup$
          You say that $|B_n - B_m|=A_n-A_m$, but this has no reason to be true in general...
          $endgroup$
          – TheSilverDoe
          Mar 10 at 22:19




          $begingroup$
          You say that $|B_n - B_m|=A_n-A_m$, but this has no reason to be true in general...
          $endgroup$
          – TheSilverDoe
          Mar 10 at 22:19












          $begingroup$
          I would argue that $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n} x_{k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^{m} x_{k}|=|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} x_{k}|=sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} |x_{k}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$. Right?
          $endgroup$
          – Mathbeginner
          Mar 10 at 22:22






          $begingroup$
          I would argue that $|B_{n}-B_{m}|=|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n} x_{k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^{m} x_{k}|=|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} x_{k}|=sumlimits_{k=m+1}^{n} |x_{k}|=A_{n}-A_{m}$. Right?
          $endgroup$
          – Mathbeginner
          Mar 10 at 22:22














          $begingroup$
          $|sum x_k|$ is not the same thing as $sum |x_k|$. The basic fact about $|.|$ is the triangle inequality $|sum x_k| leq sum |x_k|$. If you never heard about that, it is normal you are confused with absolute convergence questions ;)
          $endgroup$
          – TheSilverDoe
          Mar 10 at 22:24




          $begingroup$
          $|sum x_k|$ is not the same thing as $sum |x_k|$. The basic fact about $|.|$ is the triangle inequality $|sum x_k| leq sum |x_k|$. If you never heard about that, it is normal you are confused with absolute convergence questions ;)
          $endgroup$
          – TheSilverDoe
          Mar 10 at 22:24












          $begingroup$
          You're right, I should have written $|B_{n}-B_{m}| leq A_{n}-A_{m}$, but then I could use the same road I did, right?
          $endgroup$
          – Mathbeginner
          Mar 10 at 22:26




          $begingroup$
          You're right, I should have written $|B_{n}-B_{m}| leq A_{n}-A_{m}$, but then I could use the same road I did, right?
          $endgroup$
          – Mathbeginner
          Mar 10 at 22:26


















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