Verification of Alternate Proof for Identity Theorem in Conplex Analysis. The Next CEO of...

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Verification of Alternate Proof for Identity Theorem in Conplex Analysis.



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowOpen mapping principle complex?Corollary of identity theorem without connectedness assumptionTheorem related to the zeros of a function (Stein's Complex Analysis textbook)Can a non-constant analytic function have infinitely many zeros on a closed disk?problem on identity theorem for analytic functionsIf $f^2$ is analytic in $Omega$ then so is $f$-Problem in proof UnderstandingExercise for the identity theoremOpen mapping theorem using wikipedia proof$f(z)=0$ for all $z in mathbb{R}$Connectedness of the domain in Identity Theorem












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$begingroup$


Can't we prove Identity Theorem like this.




IDENTITY THEOREM.
Consider a function which is analytic on an open connected domain $D$, if the set of zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ then $f=0$ on $D$.




My Proof Idea.
If it is not $0$ identically then since the zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ say $z_0$.
By continuity of $f$ we have $f(z_0)=0$ and since $z_0$ is a limit point of set of zeros it is not isolated.
Thus $z_0$ being a zero of the non-constant analytic function $f$ is not isolated.
This contradicts the fact that An non-constant analytic function has isolated zeros.



Hence our assumption is wrong and f is a constant function with value being zero.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Where have you used connectedness of $D$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Mar 16 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown . So that may work even when D is not connected? By the way is there any fault in reasoning?
    $endgroup$
    – SunShine
    Mar 16 at 7:15










  • $begingroup$
    It's a bit hard to check this since your proof isn't clearly worded. Please try to be more detailed and careful in your wording. That being said, connectedness is a technical condition here, since if our set is the disjoint union of the sets $A$ and $B$ and $f$ is identically zero on $A$ and identically one on $B$ then $f$ is in fact analytic on the domain $A cup B. $
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Mar 16 at 9:15
















1












$begingroup$


Can't we prove Identity Theorem like this.




IDENTITY THEOREM.
Consider a function which is analytic on an open connected domain $D$, if the set of zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ then $f=0$ on $D$.




My Proof Idea.
If it is not $0$ identically then since the zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ say $z_0$.
By continuity of $f$ we have $f(z_0)=0$ and since $z_0$ is a limit point of set of zeros it is not isolated.
Thus $z_0$ being a zero of the non-constant analytic function $f$ is not isolated.
This contradicts the fact that An non-constant analytic function has isolated zeros.



Hence our assumption is wrong and f is a constant function with value being zero.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Where have you used connectedness of $D$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Mar 16 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown . So that may work even when D is not connected? By the way is there any fault in reasoning?
    $endgroup$
    – SunShine
    Mar 16 at 7:15










  • $begingroup$
    It's a bit hard to check this since your proof isn't clearly worded. Please try to be more detailed and careful in your wording. That being said, connectedness is a technical condition here, since if our set is the disjoint union of the sets $A$ and $B$ and $f$ is identically zero on $A$ and identically one on $B$ then $f$ is in fact analytic on the domain $A cup B. $
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Mar 16 at 9:15














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Can't we prove Identity Theorem like this.




IDENTITY THEOREM.
Consider a function which is analytic on an open connected domain $D$, if the set of zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ then $f=0$ on $D$.




My Proof Idea.
If it is not $0$ identically then since the zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ say $z_0$.
By continuity of $f$ we have $f(z_0)=0$ and since $z_0$ is a limit point of set of zeros it is not isolated.
Thus $z_0$ being a zero of the non-constant analytic function $f$ is not isolated.
This contradicts the fact that An non-constant analytic function has isolated zeros.



Hence our assumption is wrong and f is a constant function with value being zero.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Can't we prove Identity Theorem like this.




IDENTITY THEOREM.
Consider a function which is analytic on an open connected domain $D$, if the set of zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ then $f=0$ on $D$.




My Proof Idea.
If it is not $0$ identically then since the zeros of $f$ has a limit point in $D$ say $z_0$.
By continuity of $f$ we have $f(z_0)=0$ and since $z_0$ is a limit point of set of zeros it is not isolated.
Thus $z_0$ being a zero of the non-constant analytic function $f$ is not isolated.
This contradicts the fact that An non-constant analytic function has isolated zeros.



Hence our assumption is wrong and f is a constant function with value being zero.







complex-analysis analytic-functions






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 16 at 7:07









SunShineSunShine

1727




1727








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Where have you used connectedness of $D$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Mar 16 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown . So that may work even when D is not connected? By the way is there any fault in reasoning?
    $endgroup$
    – SunShine
    Mar 16 at 7:15










  • $begingroup$
    It's a bit hard to check this since your proof isn't clearly worded. Please try to be more detailed and careful in your wording. That being said, connectedness is a technical condition here, since if our set is the disjoint union of the sets $A$ and $B$ and $f$ is identically zero on $A$ and identically one on $B$ then $f$ is in fact analytic on the domain $A cup B. $
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Mar 16 at 9:15














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Where have you used connectedness of $D$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Mar 16 at 7:10










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown . So that may work even when D is not connected? By the way is there any fault in reasoning?
    $endgroup$
    – SunShine
    Mar 16 at 7:15










  • $begingroup$
    It's a bit hard to check this since your proof isn't clearly worded. Please try to be more detailed and careful in your wording. That being said, connectedness is a technical condition here, since if our set is the disjoint union of the sets $A$ and $B$ and $f$ is identically zero on $A$ and identically one on $B$ then $f$ is in fact analytic on the domain $A cup B. $
    $endgroup$
    – Brevan Ellefsen
    Mar 16 at 9:15








1




1




$begingroup$
Where have you used connectedness of $D$?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Mar 16 at 7:10




$begingroup$
Where have you used connectedness of $D$?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Mar 16 at 7:10












$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown . So that may work even when D is not connected? By the way is there any fault in reasoning?
$endgroup$
– SunShine
Mar 16 at 7:15




$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown . So that may work even when D is not connected? By the way is there any fault in reasoning?
$endgroup$
– SunShine
Mar 16 at 7:15












$begingroup$
It's a bit hard to check this since your proof isn't clearly worded. Please try to be more detailed and careful in your wording. That being said, connectedness is a technical condition here, since if our set is the disjoint union of the sets $A$ and $B$ and $f$ is identically zero on $A$ and identically one on $B$ then $f$ is in fact analytic on the domain $A cup B. $
$endgroup$
– Brevan Ellefsen
Mar 16 at 9:15




$begingroup$
It's a bit hard to check this since your proof isn't clearly worded. Please try to be more detailed and careful in your wording. That being said, connectedness is a technical condition here, since if our set is the disjoint union of the sets $A$ and $B$ and $f$ is identically zero on $A$ and identically one on $B$ then $f$ is in fact analytic on the domain $A cup B. $
$endgroup$
– Brevan Ellefsen
Mar 16 at 9:15










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

As far as I can tell, the error in your proof is in the last line, when you use the fact that a non-constant function has isolated zeros. This is definitely true if your domain is $mathbb{C}, $ which is probably the version you are thinking of, but is false in general. For example, let $A$ and $B$ be disjoint and define a function $f$ by $f equiv 0$ on $A$ and $f equiv 1$ on $B.$ Then $f$ is analytic on $A cup B$ and has non-isolated zeros but is not constant.



The theorem you are looking for is this:



given a function $fcolon A to B$, if $f$ has an accumulation point of zeros on some domain (i.e. open and connected) $C subseteq A$ then $f$ is constant on $C$.



This phenomenon is more general throughout math, and is related to topology. For example, via purely topological methods we can show that if a function is locally constant on a connected component then it is globally constant on the whole connected component, but we cannot conclude the function is constant elsewhere.



Note: you should also use the assumption that $D$ is open, since if our limit point is on the boundary the Identity Theorem can fail. Note this is part of the theorem you should be using above.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    $begingroup$

    As far as I can tell, the error in your proof is in the last line, when you use the fact that a non-constant function has isolated zeros. This is definitely true if your domain is $mathbb{C}, $ which is probably the version you are thinking of, but is false in general. For example, let $A$ and $B$ be disjoint and define a function $f$ by $f equiv 0$ on $A$ and $f equiv 1$ on $B.$ Then $f$ is analytic on $A cup B$ and has non-isolated zeros but is not constant.



    The theorem you are looking for is this:



    given a function $fcolon A to B$, if $f$ has an accumulation point of zeros on some domain (i.e. open and connected) $C subseteq A$ then $f$ is constant on $C$.



    This phenomenon is more general throughout math, and is related to topology. For example, via purely topological methods we can show that if a function is locally constant on a connected component then it is globally constant on the whole connected component, but we cannot conclude the function is constant elsewhere.



    Note: you should also use the assumption that $D$ is open, since if our limit point is on the boundary the Identity Theorem can fail. Note this is part of the theorem you should be using above.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      As far as I can tell, the error in your proof is in the last line, when you use the fact that a non-constant function has isolated zeros. This is definitely true if your domain is $mathbb{C}, $ which is probably the version you are thinking of, but is false in general. For example, let $A$ and $B$ be disjoint and define a function $f$ by $f equiv 0$ on $A$ and $f equiv 1$ on $B.$ Then $f$ is analytic on $A cup B$ and has non-isolated zeros but is not constant.



      The theorem you are looking for is this:



      given a function $fcolon A to B$, if $f$ has an accumulation point of zeros on some domain (i.e. open and connected) $C subseteq A$ then $f$ is constant on $C$.



      This phenomenon is more general throughout math, and is related to topology. For example, via purely topological methods we can show that if a function is locally constant on a connected component then it is globally constant on the whole connected component, but we cannot conclude the function is constant elsewhere.



      Note: you should also use the assumption that $D$ is open, since if our limit point is on the boundary the Identity Theorem can fail. Note this is part of the theorem you should be using above.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        As far as I can tell, the error in your proof is in the last line, when you use the fact that a non-constant function has isolated zeros. This is definitely true if your domain is $mathbb{C}, $ which is probably the version you are thinking of, but is false in general. For example, let $A$ and $B$ be disjoint and define a function $f$ by $f equiv 0$ on $A$ and $f equiv 1$ on $B.$ Then $f$ is analytic on $A cup B$ and has non-isolated zeros but is not constant.



        The theorem you are looking for is this:



        given a function $fcolon A to B$, if $f$ has an accumulation point of zeros on some domain (i.e. open and connected) $C subseteq A$ then $f$ is constant on $C$.



        This phenomenon is more general throughout math, and is related to topology. For example, via purely topological methods we can show that if a function is locally constant on a connected component then it is globally constant on the whole connected component, but we cannot conclude the function is constant elsewhere.



        Note: you should also use the assumption that $D$ is open, since if our limit point is on the boundary the Identity Theorem can fail. Note this is part of the theorem you should be using above.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        As far as I can tell, the error in your proof is in the last line, when you use the fact that a non-constant function has isolated zeros. This is definitely true if your domain is $mathbb{C}, $ which is probably the version you are thinking of, but is false in general. For example, let $A$ and $B$ be disjoint and define a function $f$ by $f equiv 0$ on $A$ and $f equiv 1$ on $B.$ Then $f$ is analytic on $A cup B$ and has non-isolated zeros but is not constant.



        The theorem you are looking for is this:



        given a function $fcolon A to B$, if $f$ has an accumulation point of zeros on some domain (i.e. open and connected) $C subseteq A$ then $f$ is constant on $C$.



        This phenomenon is more general throughout math, and is related to topology. For example, via purely topological methods we can show that if a function is locally constant on a connected component then it is globally constant on the whole connected component, but we cannot conclude the function is constant elsewhere.



        Note: you should also use the assumption that $D$ is open, since if our limit point is on the boundary the Identity Theorem can fail. Note this is part of the theorem you should be using above.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 16 at 9:39

























        answered Mar 16 at 9:25









        Brevan EllefsenBrevan Ellefsen

        12k31650




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