First Chern class of toric manifolds Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar...

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First Chern class of toric manifolds



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Torsion Chern class?2-forms represented by a first Chern class?Sign of first chern class with some conditionsfirst chern class of cotangent bundleThe first chern class of Fano manifoldfirst chern classNeron-Severi group as the image of first Chern classfirst Chern class and divisor under modificationsChern class of ideal sheafFirst Chern class for smooth line bundle












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$begingroup$


I have been reading a Mirror Symmetry monograph, and its physical arguments seem to imply that all toric manifolds have semipositive-definite first Chern class.



Is this true, and if yes, how does one show this rigorously?



Solution from physics:



In Chapter 7 (page 102) of the Mirror Symmetry monograph, it is said that "Toric varieties can be described as the set of ground states of an appropriately gauged linear sigma model (GLSM)". However, from Chapters 14 and 15 of the same book, it can be deduced that the GLSM can only provide a description of toric manifolds $X$ with $c_1(X)geq0$ (the reason is roughly that nonlinear sigma models for $X$ with $c_1(X)<0$ are not well-defined).



Thank you.










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  • $begingroup$
    Sounds more like the questions people post on Math Overflow than those here!
    $endgroup$
    – PJTraill
    Jan 2 '17 at 15:19
















3












$begingroup$


I have been reading a Mirror Symmetry monograph, and its physical arguments seem to imply that all toric manifolds have semipositive-definite first Chern class.



Is this true, and if yes, how does one show this rigorously?



Solution from physics:



In Chapter 7 (page 102) of the Mirror Symmetry monograph, it is said that "Toric varieties can be described as the set of ground states of an appropriately gauged linear sigma model (GLSM)". However, from Chapters 14 and 15 of the same book, it can be deduced that the GLSM can only provide a description of toric manifolds $X$ with $c_1(X)geq0$ (the reason is roughly that nonlinear sigma models for $X$ with $c_1(X)<0$ are not well-defined).



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Sounds more like the questions people post on Math Overflow than those here!
    $endgroup$
    – PJTraill
    Jan 2 '17 at 15:19














3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


I have been reading a Mirror Symmetry monograph, and its physical arguments seem to imply that all toric manifolds have semipositive-definite first Chern class.



Is this true, and if yes, how does one show this rigorously?



Solution from physics:



In Chapter 7 (page 102) of the Mirror Symmetry monograph, it is said that "Toric varieties can be described as the set of ground states of an appropriately gauged linear sigma model (GLSM)". However, from Chapters 14 and 15 of the same book, it can be deduced that the GLSM can only provide a description of toric manifolds $X$ with $c_1(X)geq0$ (the reason is roughly that nonlinear sigma models for $X$ with $c_1(X)<0$ are not well-defined).



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have been reading a Mirror Symmetry monograph, and its physical arguments seem to imply that all toric manifolds have semipositive-definite first Chern class.



Is this true, and if yes, how does one show this rigorously?



Solution from physics:



In Chapter 7 (page 102) of the Mirror Symmetry monograph, it is said that "Toric varieties can be described as the set of ground states of an appropriately gauged linear sigma model (GLSM)". However, from Chapters 14 and 15 of the same book, it can be deduced that the GLSM can only provide a description of toric manifolds $X$ with $c_1(X)geq0$ (the reason is roughly that nonlinear sigma models for $X$ with $c_1(X)<0$ are not well-defined).



Thank you.







algebraic-geometry mathematical-physics complex-geometry toric-geometry mirror-symmetry






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edited Mar 24 at 19:53









Andrews

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asked Dec 31 '16 at 15:00









Meer AshwinkumarMeer Ashwinkumar

29017




29017












  • $begingroup$
    Sounds more like the questions people post on Math Overflow than those here!
    $endgroup$
    – PJTraill
    Jan 2 '17 at 15:19


















  • $begingroup$
    Sounds more like the questions people post on Math Overflow than those here!
    $endgroup$
    – PJTraill
    Jan 2 '17 at 15:19
















$begingroup$
Sounds more like the questions people post on Math Overflow than those here!
$endgroup$
– PJTraill
Jan 2 '17 at 15:19




$begingroup$
Sounds more like the questions people post on Math Overflow than those here!
$endgroup$
– PJTraill
Jan 2 '17 at 15:19










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

No, this is not true. The simplest examples come from Hirzebruch surfaces, as discussed in Chapter 7 of the linked monograph. These are smooth projective toric surfaces obtained by projectivising rank-2 bundles over $mathbf P_1$, so they look like $F_n = mathbf P(O oplus O(n))$ for some natural number $n$. One can check that for $n geq 3$ this does not have semipositive first Chern class.






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    $begingroup$

    No, this is not true. The simplest examples come from Hirzebruch surfaces, as discussed in Chapter 7 of the linked monograph. These are smooth projective toric surfaces obtained by projectivising rank-2 bundles over $mathbf P_1$, so they look like $F_n = mathbf P(O oplus O(n))$ for some natural number $n$. One can check that for $n geq 3$ this does not have semipositive first Chern class.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      No, this is not true. The simplest examples come from Hirzebruch surfaces, as discussed in Chapter 7 of the linked monograph. These are smooth projective toric surfaces obtained by projectivising rank-2 bundles over $mathbf P_1$, so they look like $F_n = mathbf P(O oplus O(n))$ for some natural number $n$. One can check that for $n geq 3$ this does not have semipositive first Chern class.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        No, this is not true. The simplest examples come from Hirzebruch surfaces, as discussed in Chapter 7 of the linked monograph. These are smooth projective toric surfaces obtained by projectivising rank-2 bundles over $mathbf P_1$, so they look like $F_n = mathbf P(O oplus O(n))$ for some natural number $n$. One can check that for $n geq 3$ this does not have semipositive first Chern class.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        No, this is not true. The simplest examples come from Hirzebruch surfaces, as discussed in Chapter 7 of the linked monograph. These are smooth projective toric surfaces obtained by projectivising rank-2 bundles over $mathbf P_1$, so they look like $F_n = mathbf P(O oplus O(n))$ for some natural number $n$. One can check that for $n geq 3$ this does not have semipositive first Chern class.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 2 '17 at 12:59









        NefertitiNefertiti

        94137




        94137






























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