Renumerating partitioned sets [duplicate] Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679:...

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Renumerating partitioned sets [duplicate]



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Partition of a set and Hall's theoremGraph Theory - Network Flow & Bipartite graph (realized)Distinguishing between two sets of tournament partitionPerfect matching for graph with two edges for every nodemaximum matching to solve a path-packing problemHow long can a teacher form daily groups so that no two students meet more than once?Order of maximin setsPartitions that separate all subsetsIs it always possible to choose 2-partitions of a set that cover the maximum number of pairs without repeating?Probability that m samples without replacement cover the entire setSpanning trees for complete graph












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This question already has an answer here:




  • Partition of a set and Hall's theorem

    1 answer




This is a problem in my graph theory class and I'm unsure about how to solve it..




Let $X$ be the set ${1,2,dots,mn}$. Suppose we partition $X$ into $m$ sets $P_1,dots,P_m$, each of size $n$.



Suppose we choose another partition $Q_1,dots,Q_m$, each of size $n$.



Show that the sets $P_i$ can be renumbered so that $P_i cap Q_i$ is non-empty for every $i$.




Thanks in advance!



Edit: I'm attempting to use Hall's Marriage theorem to solve this but I'm struggling with formulating the solution in a way that would get me to my answer.










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marked as duplicate by Gibbs, Cesareo, darij grinberg, mrtaurho, Javi Mar 25 at 11:26


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.























    0












    $begingroup$



    This question already has an answer here:




    • Partition of a set and Hall's theorem

      1 answer




    This is a problem in my graph theory class and I'm unsure about how to solve it..




    Let $X$ be the set ${1,2,dots,mn}$. Suppose we partition $X$ into $m$ sets $P_1,dots,P_m$, each of size $n$.



    Suppose we choose another partition $Q_1,dots,Q_m$, each of size $n$.



    Show that the sets $P_i$ can be renumbered so that $P_i cap Q_i$ is non-empty for every $i$.




    Thanks in advance!



    Edit: I'm attempting to use Hall's Marriage theorem to solve this but I'm struggling with formulating the solution in a way that would get me to my answer.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$



    marked as duplicate by Gibbs, Cesareo, darij grinberg, mrtaurho, Javi Mar 25 at 11:26


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.





















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      This question already has an answer here:




      • Partition of a set and Hall's theorem

        1 answer




      This is a problem in my graph theory class and I'm unsure about how to solve it..




      Let $X$ be the set ${1,2,dots,mn}$. Suppose we partition $X$ into $m$ sets $P_1,dots,P_m$, each of size $n$.



      Suppose we choose another partition $Q_1,dots,Q_m$, each of size $n$.



      Show that the sets $P_i$ can be renumbered so that $P_i cap Q_i$ is non-empty for every $i$.




      Thanks in advance!



      Edit: I'm attempting to use Hall's Marriage theorem to solve this but I'm struggling with formulating the solution in a way that would get me to my answer.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Partition of a set and Hall's theorem

        1 answer




      This is a problem in my graph theory class and I'm unsure about how to solve it..




      Let $X$ be the set ${1,2,dots,mn}$. Suppose we partition $X$ into $m$ sets $P_1,dots,P_m$, each of size $n$.



      Suppose we choose another partition $Q_1,dots,Q_m$, each of size $n$.



      Show that the sets $P_i$ can be renumbered so that $P_i cap Q_i$ is non-empty for every $i$.




      Thanks in advance!



      Edit: I'm attempting to use Hall's Marriage theorem to solve this but I'm struggling with formulating the solution in a way that would get me to my answer.





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Partition of a set and Hall's theorem

        1 answer








      combinatorics graph-theory set-partition






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      edited Mar 25 at 4:38









      MarianD

      2,2761619




      2,2761619










      asked Mar 24 at 20:40









      Davyd RickmannDavyd Rickmann

      263




      263




      marked as duplicate by Gibbs, Cesareo, darij grinberg, mrtaurho, Javi Mar 25 at 11:26


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









      marked as duplicate by Gibbs, Cesareo, darij grinberg, mrtaurho, Javi Mar 25 at 11:26


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
























          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Hall's Marriage Theorem is the right way to go. To put it in terms of graphs, consider a bipartite graph, where The $P_k$ form one of the bipartition sets, and the $Q_k$ form the other. Make $P_i$ adjacent to $Q_j$ if and only if $P_icap Q_jneq emptyset.$ Then you want to show that there is a complete matching, so if you can show that Hall's condition holds, you are done.



          That is, you must show that if $P_{i_1},dots,P_{i_k}$ are given, for some $1leq kleq m,$ then there exist $Q_{i_1},dots,Q_{i_k}$ that each have at least one element in common with at least one of the $P_{i_j}.$



          This is quite easy when you think about it.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            Hall's Marriage Theorem is the right way to go. To put it in terms of graphs, consider a bipartite graph, where The $P_k$ form one of the bipartition sets, and the $Q_k$ form the other. Make $P_i$ adjacent to $Q_j$ if and only if $P_icap Q_jneq emptyset.$ Then you want to show that there is a complete matching, so if you can show that Hall's condition holds, you are done.



            That is, you must show that if $P_{i_1},dots,P_{i_k}$ are given, for some $1leq kleq m,$ then there exist $Q_{i_1},dots,Q_{i_k}$ that each have at least one element in common with at least one of the $P_{i_j}.$



            This is quite easy when you think about it.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Hall's Marriage Theorem is the right way to go. To put it in terms of graphs, consider a bipartite graph, where The $P_k$ form one of the bipartition sets, and the $Q_k$ form the other. Make $P_i$ adjacent to $Q_j$ if and only if $P_icap Q_jneq emptyset.$ Then you want to show that there is a complete matching, so if you can show that Hall's condition holds, you are done.



              That is, you must show that if $P_{i_1},dots,P_{i_k}$ are given, for some $1leq kleq m,$ then there exist $Q_{i_1},dots,Q_{i_k}$ that each have at least one element in common with at least one of the $P_{i_j}.$



              This is quite easy when you think about it.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Hall's Marriage Theorem is the right way to go. To put it in terms of graphs, consider a bipartite graph, where The $P_k$ form one of the bipartition sets, and the $Q_k$ form the other. Make $P_i$ adjacent to $Q_j$ if and only if $P_icap Q_jneq emptyset.$ Then you want to show that there is a complete matching, so if you can show that Hall's condition holds, you are done.



                That is, you must show that if $P_{i_1},dots,P_{i_k}$ are given, for some $1leq kleq m,$ then there exist $Q_{i_1},dots,Q_{i_k}$ that each have at least one element in common with at least one of the $P_{i_j}.$



                This is quite easy when you think about it.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Hall's Marriage Theorem is the right way to go. To put it in terms of graphs, consider a bipartite graph, where The $P_k$ form one of the bipartition sets, and the $Q_k$ form the other. Make $P_i$ adjacent to $Q_j$ if and only if $P_icap Q_jneq emptyset.$ Then you want to show that there is a complete matching, so if you can show that Hall's condition holds, you are done.



                That is, you must show that if $P_{i_1},dots,P_{i_k}$ are given, for some $1leq kleq m,$ then there exist $Q_{i_1},dots,Q_{i_k}$ that each have at least one element in common with at least one of the $P_{i_j}.$



                This is quite easy when you think about it.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 24 at 21:01









                saulspatzsaulspatz

                17.5k31536




                17.5k31536















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