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Comparing to a constant with the limit comparison test



The Next CEO of Stack Overflowlimit of a sequence; using comparison testTesting Convergence With Limit Comparison TestCalculus II: Comparison Test for DivergenceShould I use the comparison test for the following series?The Comparison Test for Seriescomparison or limit comparison test..?Incorrect comparison test on seriesComparison test $sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{2n+7}$Comparison test of series with ln functionWhy do I have to use L'Hopital in limit comparison test for $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sinleft(frac{1}{n}right)$












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Recently in my calculus class, we covered the limit comparison test for infinite series (among other things related to sequences and series). We have also covered improper integrals earlier this semester. One of the homework questions asks us to "calculate" $$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n::text{where}::a_n=arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right).$$



I noted that, as $a_nto infty$, $arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)approx arctan(1)$, and used that to compare using the limit comparison test, resulting in $$lim_limits{ntoinfty}frac{arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)}{arctan(1)} = 1,$$ so I concluded that $a_n$ diverges, since $$sum_{n=1}^infty arctan(1) = infty.$$



I was wondering if, both in this specific case and in general, using a constant with the limit comparison test was even allowed, since up until now we have been comparing to similar $f(x)$ or $b_n$ for integrals and series respectively.










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Recently in my calculus class, we covered the limit comparison test for infinite series (among other things related to sequences and series). We have also covered improper integrals earlier this semester. One of the homework questions asks us to "calculate" $$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n::text{where}::a_n=arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right).$$



    I noted that, as $a_nto infty$, $arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)approx arctan(1)$, and used that to compare using the limit comparison test, resulting in $$lim_limits{ntoinfty}frac{arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)}{arctan(1)} = 1,$$ so I concluded that $a_n$ diverges, since $$sum_{n=1}^infty arctan(1) = infty.$$



    I was wondering if, both in this specific case and in general, using a constant with the limit comparison test was even allowed, since up until now we have been comparing to similar $f(x)$ or $b_n$ for integrals and series respectively.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Recently in my calculus class, we covered the limit comparison test for infinite series (among other things related to sequences and series). We have also covered improper integrals earlier this semester. One of the homework questions asks us to "calculate" $$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n::text{where}::a_n=arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right).$$



      I noted that, as $a_nto infty$, $arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)approx arctan(1)$, and used that to compare using the limit comparison test, resulting in $$lim_limits{ntoinfty}frac{arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)}{arctan(1)} = 1,$$ so I concluded that $a_n$ diverges, since $$sum_{n=1}^infty arctan(1) = infty.$$



      I was wondering if, both in this specific case and in general, using a constant with the limit comparison test was even allowed, since up until now we have been comparing to similar $f(x)$ or $b_n$ for integrals and series respectively.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Recently in my calculus class, we covered the limit comparison test for infinite series (among other things related to sequences and series). We have also covered improper integrals earlier this semester. One of the homework questions asks us to "calculate" $$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n::text{where}::a_n=arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right).$$



      I noted that, as $a_nto infty$, $arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)approx arctan(1)$, and used that to compare using the limit comparison test, resulting in $$lim_limits{ntoinfty}frac{arctanleft(frac {n^2}{n^2+4}right)}{arctan(1)} = 1,$$ so I concluded that $a_n$ diverges, since $$sum_{n=1}^infty arctan(1) = infty.$$



      I was wondering if, both in this specific case and in general, using a constant with the limit comparison test was even allowed, since up until now we have been comparing to similar $f(x)$ or $b_n$ for integrals and series respectively.







      calculus sequences-and-series improper-integrals






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      edited Mar 18 at 2:47









      Robert Howard

      2,2933935




      2,2933935










      asked Mar 18 at 2:36









      TropingenieTropingenie

      105




      105






















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          $begingroup$

          Yes: the function $f(x) = arctan 1$ (independent of $x$) is a perfectly valid function.



          Note that in such cases, the Test for Divergence will work more quickly, since the summand does not tend to $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            Yes: the function $f(x) = arctan 1$ (independent of $x$) is a perfectly valid function.



            Note that in such cases, the Test for Divergence will work more quickly, since the summand does not tend to $0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              Yes: the function $f(x) = arctan 1$ (independent of $x$) is a perfectly valid function.



              Note that in such cases, the Test for Divergence will work more quickly, since the summand does not tend to $0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                Yes: the function $f(x) = arctan 1$ (independent of $x$) is a perfectly valid function.



                Note that in such cases, the Test for Divergence will work more quickly, since the summand does not tend to $0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Yes: the function $f(x) = arctan 1$ (independent of $x$) is a perfectly valid function.



                Note that in such cases, the Test for Divergence will work more quickly, since the summand does not tend to $0$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 18 at 3:27









                Greg MartinGreg Martin

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