Counting lattice points with relatively prime coordinates The Next CEO of Stack...
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Counting lattice points with relatively prime coordinates
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowCounting Lattice Points with Ehrhart PolynomialsFinding a set of subsets such that for each such subset in the set, there exists another subset in the same set which is non-disjointConcise proof that every common divisor divides GCD without Bezout's identity?counting lattice paths with turnsFind the condition for a center of a circle with exactly one lattice point on its circumferenceUnderstanding the proof of unique natural divisorConditions for $(I+K)cap (J+K) = Icap J +K $ to hold for ideals of ring $R$Probabilistic/combinatoric proof of $sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{tk+r}{k}binom{t(n-k)+s}{n-k}frac{r}{tk+r}=binom{tn+r+s}{n}$A proof of a simple combinatorial lemmaCounting Lattice Points
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My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.
Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
, : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$
$$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$ Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.
Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$
We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.
Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$
combinatorics elementary-number-theory
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.
Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
, : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$
$$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$ Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.
Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$
We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.
Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$
combinatorics elementary-number-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.
Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
, : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$
$$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$ Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.
Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$
We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.
Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$
combinatorics elementary-number-theory
$endgroup$
My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.
Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
, : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$
$$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$ Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.
Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$
We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.
Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$
combinatorics elementary-number-theory
combinatorics elementary-number-theory
edited Mar 18 at 2:09
Sameer Kailasa
asked Mar 18 at 1:32
Sameer KailasaSameer Kailasa
5,59321843
5,59321843
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A heuristic start:
Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
A heuristic start:
Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
A heuristic start:
Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A heuristic start:
Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.
$endgroup$
A heuristic start:
Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.
answered Mar 18 at 13:15
Roddy MacPheeRoddy MacPhee
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629118
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