Dtjytyk

Is the Standard Deduction better than Itemized when both are the same amount?

An adverb for when you're not exaggerating

How to find all the available tools in mac terminal?

Do jazz musicians improvise on the parent scale in addition to the chord-scales?

How to deal with a team lead who never gives me credit?

Significance of Cersei's obsession with elephants?

What font is "z" in "z-score"?

Amount of permutations on an NxNxN Rubik's Cube

Delete nth line from bottom

What would be the ideal power source for a cybernetic eye?

If a contract sometimes uses the wrong name, is it still valid?

How could we fake a moon landing now?

What is the meaning of the simile “quick as silk”?

Why aren't air breathing engines used as small first stages

また usage in a dictionary

For a new assistant professor in CS, how to build/manage a publication pipeline

How do I make this wiring inside cabinet safer? (Pic)

Why are both D and D# fitting into my E minor key?

How to tell that you are a giant?

If my PI received research grants from a company to be able to pay my postdoc salary, did I have a potential conflict interest too?

Can anything be seen from the center of the Boötes void? How dark would it be?

old style "caution" boxes

How to Make a Beautiful Stacked 3D Plot

What are the out-of-universe reasons for the references to Toby Maguire-era Spider-Man in ITSV

If $(X,A)$ has homotopy extension property, then $(X times I, X times partial I cup A times I)$ also shares this property.

4

0

$begingroup$

The original problem is to prove:

If $(X,A)$ has HEP (homotopy extension property), then $(X times I, X times partial I cup A times I)$ also shares this property.

I found a proof in Page 35, Theorem 2.33 of this note, or see here in picture, but I want an explicit one.

My question:

Can we get an explicit expression of retraction $$phi: X times I times I to X times I times {0} cup (X times partial I cup A times I) times I$$
?

Thank you!

algebraic-topology homotopy-theory

share|cite|improve this question

edited Mar 24 at 20:26

Andrews

asked Oct 19 '18 at 4:59

AndrewsAndrews

1,3012423

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

4

0

$begingroup$

The original problem is to prove:

If $(X,A)$ has HEP (homotopy extension property), then $(X times I, X times partial I cup A times I)$ also shares this property.

I found a proof in Page 35, Theorem 2.33 of this note, or see here in picture, but I want an explicit one.

My question:

Can we get an explicit expression of retraction $$phi: X times I times I to X times I times {0} cup (X times partial I cup A times I) times I$$
?

Thank you!

algebraic-topology homotopy-theory

share|cite|improve this question

edited Mar 24 at 20:26

Andrews

asked Oct 19 '18 at 4:59

AndrewsAndrews

1,3012423

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

The original problem is to prove:

If $(X,A)$ has HEP (homotopy extension property), then $(X times I, X times partial I cup A times I)$ also shares this property.

I found a proof in Page 35, Theorem 2.33 of this note, or see here in picture, but I want an explicit one.

My question:

Can we get an explicit expression of retraction $$phi: X times I times I to X times I times {0} cup (X times partial I cup A times I) times I$$
?

Thank you!

algebraic-topology homotopy-theory

share|cite|improve this question

edited Mar 24 at 20:26

Andrews

asked Oct 19 '18 at 4:59

AndrewsAndrews

1,3012423

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this question

edited Mar 24 at 20:26

Andrews

asked Oct 19 '18 at 4:59

AndrewsAndrews

1,3012423

share|cite|improve this question

edited Mar 24 at 20:26

Andrews

asked Oct 19 '18 at 4:59

AndrewsAndrews

1,3012423

asked Oct 19 '18 at 4:59

AndrewsAndrews

1,3012423

asked Oct 19 '18 at 4:59

AndrewsAndrews

1,3012423