Show $f(x,y,z) = frac{log(y/x)}{log(z/x)}$ is quasi concave for $x ge y > 0$, $x ge z > 0$.Convexity of...

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Show $f(x,y,z) = frac{log(y/x)}{log(z/x)}$ is quasi concave for $x ge y > 0$, $x ge z > 0$.


Convexity of a SetHow do I show that $ d((x_1, x_2), (y_1, y_2)) = |y_1 - x_1| + |y_2 - x_2|$ is a metric?How to show $f(x,y,z)=(xy, yz,xz,x^2-y^2)$ is injective?A proof of property of log-concaveShowing that the Triangle Inequality holds for the $L_infty$ norm as a metric.Proving ${(x_1, x_2) in mathbb{R}^2_{+} mid x_1 x_2 geq 1}$ is convexStokes theorem for CuboidEstimating Parameters of Log-Concave ModelQuasiconcavity of the product functionConcavity of $ln(x^alpha - y)$ function













0












$begingroup$


I'd like to show that
$$
frac{logfrac{y_1+y_2}{x_1+x_2}}{logfrac{z_1+z_2}{x_1+x_2}}
ge
minleft{
frac{log(y_1/x_1)}{log(z_1/x_1)},
frac{log(y_2/x_2)}{log(z_2/x_2)}
right}.
$$

This would follow if $f(x,y,z) =
frac{log(y/x)}{log(z/x)}$
was quasi concave.



One way to show this is if $f(x,y,z)gealpha$ defines a convex set for all $alphage 0$.
Plotting for various values of $alpha$, this is clearly the case.



From the first order condition, it suffices if
$f(vec y) le f(vec x) implies nabla f(vec x)^T(vec y-vec x) ge 0.$
Let $x'ge y',z'$ be such that $f(x',y',z')le f(x,y,z)$ then we must show



$$z log left(frac{x}{z}right) (y x'-x y')
ge y log left(frac{x}{y}right) (z x'-x z'),$$

which unfortunately doesn't seem any easier.



Alternatively, since $log x$ is quasi-linear, perhaps it suffices to show that $(x-y)/(x-z)$ is quasi-concave? I don't know a theorem to this effect, however.



Do you see a nice argument I might use to simplify this problem? Perhaps just tackling the original inequality directly?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Could you clearly define the domain? Can $x/y/z$ all be negative?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:05










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg Right! They are all positive. They are also at most 1, though that doesn't seem to make a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:50






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Ok, just to make sure, $log(z/x)$ can be both negative and positive, right? Or did you mean $x geq y > 0$ and $x > z > 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:53












  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg I didn't even think of that obvious ambiguity! It is always negative, or if we write it as $log(x/y)/log(x/z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:56
















0












$begingroup$


I'd like to show that
$$
frac{logfrac{y_1+y_2}{x_1+x_2}}{logfrac{z_1+z_2}{x_1+x_2}}
ge
minleft{
frac{log(y_1/x_1)}{log(z_1/x_1)},
frac{log(y_2/x_2)}{log(z_2/x_2)}
right}.
$$

This would follow if $f(x,y,z) =
frac{log(y/x)}{log(z/x)}$
was quasi concave.



One way to show this is if $f(x,y,z)gealpha$ defines a convex set for all $alphage 0$.
Plotting for various values of $alpha$, this is clearly the case.



From the first order condition, it suffices if
$f(vec y) le f(vec x) implies nabla f(vec x)^T(vec y-vec x) ge 0.$
Let $x'ge y',z'$ be such that $f(x',y',z')le f(x,y,z)$ then we must show



$$z log left(frac{x}{z}right) (y x'-x y')
ge y log left(frac{x}{y}right) (z x'-x z'),$$

which unfortunately doesn't seem any easier.



Alternatively, since $log x$ is quasi-linear, perhaps it suffices to show that $(x-y)/(x-z)$ is quasi-concave? I don't know a theorem to this effect, however.



Do you see a nice argument I might use to simplify this problem? Perhaps just tackling the original inequality directly?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Could you clearly define the domain? Can $x/y/z$ all be negative?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:05










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg Right! They are all positive. They are also at most 1, though that doesn't seem to make a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:50






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Ok, just to make sure, $log(z/x)$ can be both negative and positive, right? Or did you mean $x geq y > 0$ and $x > z > 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:53












  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg I didn't even think of that obvious ambiguity! It is always negative, or if we write it as $log(x/y)/log(x/z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:56














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I'd like to show that
$$
frac{logfrac{y_1+y_2}{x_1+x_2}}{logfrac{z_1+z_2}{x_1+x_2}}
ge
minleft{
frac{log(y_1/x_1)}{log(z_1/x_1)},
frac{log(y_2/x_2)}{log(z_2/x_2)}
right}.
$$

This would follow if $f(x,y,z) =
frac{log(y/x)}{log(z/x)}$
was quasi concave.



One way to show this is if $f(x,y,z)gealpha$ defines a convex set for all $alphage 0$.
Plotting for various values of $alpha$, this is clearly the case.



From the first order condition, it suffices if
$f(vec y) le f(vec x) implies nabla f(vec x)^T(vec y-vec x) ge 0.$
Let $x'ge y',z'$ be such that $f(x',y',z')le f(x,y,z)$ then we must show



$$z log left(frac{x}{z}right) (y x'-x y')
ge y log left(frac{x}{y}right) (z x'-x z'),$$

which unfortunately doesn't seem any easier.



Alternatively, since $log x$ is quasi-linear, perhaps it suffices to show that $(x-y)/(x-z)$ is quasi-concave? I don't know a theorem to this effect, however.



Do you see a nice argument I might use to simplify this problem? Perhaps just tackling the original inequality directly?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'd like to show that
$$
frac{logfrac{y_1+y_2}{x_1+x_2}}{logfrac{z_1+z_2}{x_1+x_2}}
ge
minleft{
frac{log(y_1/x_1)}{log(z_1/x_1)},
frac{log(y_2/x_2)}{log(z_2/x_2)}
right}.
$$

This would follow if $f(x,y,z) =
frac{log(y/x)}{log(z/x)}$
was quasi concave.



One way to show this is if $f(x,y,z)gealpha$ defines a convex set for all $alphage 0$.
Plotting for various values of $alpha$, this is clearly the case.



From the first order condition, it suffices if
$f(vec y) le f(vec x) implies nabla f(vec x)^T(vec y-vec x) ge 0.$
Let $x'ge y',z'$ be such that $f(x',y',z')le f(x,y,z)$ then we must show



$$z log left(frac{x}{z}right) (y x'-x y')
ge y log left(frac{x}{y}right) (z x'-x z'),$$

which unfortunately doesn't seem any easier.



Alternatively, since $log x$ is quasi-linear, perhaps it suffices to show that $(x-y)/(x-z)$ is quasi-concave? I don't know a theorem to this effect, however.



Do you see a nice argument I might use to simplify this problem? Perhaps just tackling the original inequality directly?







real-analysis convex-analysis convex-optimization






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 11 at 19:56







Thomas Ahle

















asked Mar 11 at 11:21









Thomas AhleThomas Ahle

1,4641322




1,4641322












  • $begingroup$
    Could you clearly define the domain? Can $x/y/z$ all be negative?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:05










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg Right! They are all positive. They are also at most 1, though that doesn't seem to make a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:50






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Ok, just to make sure, $log(z/x)$ can be both negative and positive, right? Or did you mean $x geq y > 0$ and $x > z > 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:53












  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg I didn't even think of that obvious ambiguity! It is always negative, or if we write it as $log(x/y)/log(x/z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:56


















  • $begingroup$
    Could you clearly define the domain? Can $x/y/z$ all be negative?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:05










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg Right! They are all positive. They are also at most 1, though that doesn't seem to make a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:50






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Ok, just to make sure, $log(z/x)$ can be both negative and positive, right? Or did you mean $x geq y > 0$ and $x > z > 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 11 at 19:53












  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg I didn't even think of that obvious ambiguity! It is always negative, or if we write it as $log(x/y)/log(x/z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 19:56
















$begingroup$
Could you clearly define the domain? Can $x/y/z$ all be negative?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Mar 11 at 19:05




$begingroup$
Could you clearly define the domain? Can $x/y/z$ all be negative?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Mar 11 at 19:05












$begingroup$
@LinAlg Right! They are all positive. They are also at most 1, though that doesn't seem to make a difference.
$endgroup$
– Thomas Ahle
Mar 11 at 19:50




$begingroup$
@LinAlg Right! They are all positive. They are also at most 1, though that doesn't seem to make a difference.
$endgroup$
– Thomas Ahle
Mar 11 at 19:50




1




1




$begingroup$
Ok, just to make sure, $log(z/x)$ can be both negative and positive, right? Or did you mean $x geq y > 0$ and $x > z > 0$?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Mar 11 at 19:53






$begingroup$
Ok, just to make sure, $log(z/x)$ can be both negative and positive, right? Or did you mean $x geq y > 0$ and $x > z > 0$?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Mar 11 at 19:53














$begingroup$
@LinAlg I didn't even think of that obvious ambiguity! It is always negative, or if we write it as $log(x/y)/log(x/z)$.
$endgroup$
– Thomas Ahle
Mar 11 at 19:56




$begingroup$
@LinAlg I didn't even think of that obvious ambiguity! It is always negative, or if we write it as $log(x/y)/log(x/z)$.
$endgroup$
– Thomas Ahle
Mar 11 at 19:56










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let me give you a possible method. Consider the superlevel set ${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) / log(z/x) geq alpha, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$. Since $log(z/x)$ is negative, the sublevel set is equivalent to the set:
$${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) leq alpha log(z/x), x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$$
$$={(x,y,z) : y leq x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }.$$
Consider the Hessian of $f(x,z) = x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}$. If it is negative semidefinite, the set is convex and you are done. Otherwise, try the same but with $x$ or $z$ on one side.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The eigenvalues of the Hessian are $0$ and $-(1-alpha) a x^{-alpha-1} z^{alpha-2} left(x^2+z^2right)$, so I guess it is negative semidefinite for all $alphale1$. That suffices for my purposes! Is ${(x,y,z) : y le f(x,y)}$ always convex when $f$ is concave?
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 21:16








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAhle the answer to your last question is yes; the equivalent set in convex optimization is ${x : f(x) leq 0}$ where $f$ is convex.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 12 at 0:44











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Let me give you a possible method. Consider the superlevel set ${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) / log(z/x) geq alpha, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$. Since $log(z/x)$ is negative, the sublevel set is equivalent to the set:
$${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) leq alpha log(z/x), x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$$
$$={(x,y,z) : y leq x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }.$$
Consider the Hessian of $f(x,z) = x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}$. If it is negative semidefinite, the set is convex and you are done. Otherwise, try the same but with $x$ or $z$ on one side.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The eigenvalues of the Hessian are $0$ and $-(1-alpha) a x^{-alpha-1} z^{alpha-2} left(x^2+z^2right)$, so I guess it is negative semidefinite for all $alphale1$. That suffices for my purposes! Is ${(x,y,z) : y le f(x,y)}$ always convex when $f$ is concave?
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 21:16








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAhle the answer to your last question is yes; the equivalent set in convex optimization is ${x : f(x) leq 0}$ where $f$ is convex.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 12 at 0:44
















1












$begingroup$

Let me give you a possible method. Consider the superlevel set ${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) / log(z/x) geq alpha, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$. Since $log(z/x)$ is negative, the sublevel set is equivalent to the set:
$${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) leq alpha log(z/x), x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$$
$$={(x,y,z) : y leq x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }.$$
Consider the Hessian of $f(x,z) = x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}$. If it is negative semidefinite, the set is convex and you are done. Otherwise, try the same but with $x$ or $z$ on one side.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The eigenvalues of the Hessian are $0$ and $-(1-alpha) a x^{-alpha-1} z^{alpha-2} left(x^2+z^2right)$, so I guess it is negative semidefinite for all $alphale1$. That suffices for my purposes! Is ${(x,y,z) : y le f(x,y)}$ always convex when $f$ is concave?
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 21:16








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAhle the answer to your last question is yes; the equivalent set in convex optimization is ${x : f(x) leq 0}$ where $f$ is convex.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 12 at 0:44














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Let me give you a possible method. Consider the superlevel set ${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) / log(z/x) geq alpha, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$. Since $log(z/x)$ is negative, the sublevel set is equivalent to the set:
$${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) leq alpha log(z/x), x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$$
$$={(x,y,z) : y leq x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }.$$
Consider the Hessian of $f(x,z) = x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}$. If it is negative semidefinite, the set is convex and you are done. Otherwise, try the same but with $x$ or $z$ on one side.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Let me give you a possible method. Consider the superlevel set ${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) / log(z/x) geq alpha, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$. Since $log(z/x)$ is negative, the sublevel set is equivalent to the set:
$${(x,y,z) : log(y/x) leq alpha log(z/x), x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }$$
$$={(x,y,z) : y leq x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}, x geq y > 0, x > z > 0 }.$$
Consider the Hessian of $f(x,z) = x^{1-alpha}z^{alpha}$. If it is negative semidefinite, the set is convex and you are done. Otherwise, try the same but with $x$ or $z$ on one side.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 11 at 20:51









LinAlgLinAlg

10.1k1521




10.1k1521












  • $begingroup$
    The eigenvalues of the Hessian are $0$ and $-(1-alpha) a x^{-alpha-1} z^{alpha-2} left(x^2+z^2right)$, so I guess it is negative semidefinite for all $alphale1$. That suffices for my purposes! Is ${(x,y,z) : y le f(x,y)}$ always convex when $f$ is concave?
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 21:16








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAhle the answer to your last question is yes; the equivalent set in convex optimization is ${x : f(x) leq 0}$ where $f$ is convex.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 12 at 0:44


















  • $begingroup$
    The eigenvalues of the Hessian are $0$ and $-(1-alpha) a x^{-alpha-1} z^{alpha-2} left(x^2+z^2right)$, so I guess it is negative semidefinite for all $alphale1$. That suffices for my purposes! Is ${(x,y,z) : y le f(x,y)}$ always convex when $f$ is concave?
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Ahle
    Mar 11 at 21:16








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @ThomasAhle the answer to your last question is yes; the equivalent set in convex optimization is ${x : f(x) leq 0}$ where $f$ is convex.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Mar 12 at 0:44
















$begingroup$
The eigenvalues of the Hessian are $0$ and $-(1-alpha) a x^{-alpha-1} z^{alpha-2} left(x^2+z^2right)$, so I guess it is negative semidefinite for all $alphale1$. That suffices for my purposes! Is ${(x,y,z) : y le f(x,y)}$ always convex when $f$ is concave?
$endgroup$
– Thomas Ahle
Mar 11 at 21:16






$begingroup$
The eigenvalues of the Hessian are $0$ and $-(1-alpha) a x^{-alpha-1} z^{alpha-2} left(x^2+z^2right)$, so I guess it is negative semidefinite for all $alphale1$. That suffices for my purposes! Is ${(x,y,z) : y le f(x,y)}$ always convex when $f$ is concave?
$endgroup$
– Thomas Ahle
Mar 11 at 21:16






1




1




$begingroup$
@ThomasAhle the answer to your last question is yes; the equivalent set in convex optimization is ${x : f(x) leq 0}$ where $f$ is convex.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Mar 12 at 0:44




$begingroup$
@ThomasAhle the answer to your last question is yes; the equivalent set in convex optimization is ${x : f(x) leq 0}$ where $f$ is convex.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Mar 12 at 0:44


















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Where did Arya get these scars? Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Favourite questions and answers from the 1st quarter of 2019Why did Arya refuse to end it?Has the pronunciation of Arya Stark's name changed?Has Arya forgiven people?Why did Arya Stark lose her vision?Why can Arya still use the faces?Has the Narrow Sea become narrower?Does Arya Stark know how to make poisons outside of the House of Black and White?Why did Nymeria leave Arya?Why did Arya not kill the Lannister soldiers she encountered in the Riverlands?What is the current canonical age of Sansa, Bran and Arya Stark?