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$A$ closed, $B$ compact. $A$ and $B$ are disjoint. Prove that the distance between them is positive.


Prove that the distance between a disjoint compact set and closed set is nonzero.Prove $X$ is compact if every family of closed sets with the finite intersection property have non-empty intersectionProve that if $f$ is a continuous mapping of a compact metric space $X$ into $mathbb{R}^k$, then $f(X)$ is closed and bounded.Prove compact subsets of metric spaces are closedDistance of compact sets- Proof without subsequence convergence and continuityClosed subsets of a compact metric space with distance zero from each otherProve that if $A subset C$ is bounded and closed, then $A$ is compact. (Proof guidance)Prove that if $A,B$ are closed and disjoint in a metric space, then they are contained in disjoint neighborhoodsClosed subsets of compact sets are compact (original proof)Is this proof that a continuous image of a compact metric space is compact correct?













1












$begingroup$


Let $M$ be a metric space, $Asubset M, Bsubset M, Acap B = emptyset, A text{closed}, B text{compact}.$



Define distance between sets as $D(A,B) = inf d(a,b)$ where $d$ is the metric on $M$.



I'm asked to prove that $D(A,B) > 0$ which is equivalent to proving that $D(A,B) neq 0.$



My attempt:



Assume $D(A,B) = 0.$



This means that $exists (a,b) s.t. d(a,b) < epsilon forall epsilon > 0.$ Let $a,b$ denote these specific $a,b$.



Take a sequence in $A$ including $a$ as last element. This sequence must converge to $b$ because of the above statement. This means there exists a sequence in $A$ converging to an element not in $A$. This is not possible since $A$ is closed.



Thus $D(A,B) neq 0.$



Is this proof correct? If it is not, how can I modify it / rewrite it. If it is, why do I need to know that $B$ is compact?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You didn't justify why a sequence in $A$ could converge to a point in $B$. Your points $a$ and $b$ vary with $epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    2 days ago
















1












$begingroup$


Let $M$ be a metric space, $Asubset M, Bsubset M, Acap B = emptyset, A text{closed}, B text{compact}.$



Define distance between sets as $D(A,B) = inf d(a,b)$ where $d$ is the metric on $M$.



I'm asked to prove that $D(A,B) > 0$ which is equivalent to proving that $D(A,B) neq 0.$



My attempt:



Assume $D(A,B) = 0.$



This means that $exists (a,b) s.t. d(a,b) < epsilon forall epsilon > 0.$ Let $a,b$ denote these specific $a,b$.



Take a sequence in $A$ including $a$ as last element. This sequence must converge to $b$ because of the above statement. This means there exists a sequence in $A$ converging to an element not in $A$. This is not possible since $A$ is closed.



Thus $D(A,B) neq 0.$



Is this proof correct? If it is not, how can I modify it / rewrite it. If it is, why do I need to know that $B$ is compact?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You didn't justify why a sequence in $A$ could converge to a point in $B$. Your points $a$ and $b$ vary with $epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    2 days ago














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Let $M$ be a metric space, $Asubset M, Bsubset M, Acap B = emptyset, A text{closed}, B text{compact}.$



Define distance between sets as $D(A,B) = inf d(a,b)$ where $d$ is the metric on $M$.



I'm asked to prove that $D(A,B) > 0$ which is equivalent to proving that $D(A,B) neq 0.$



My attempt:



Assume $D(A,B) = 0.$



This means that $exists (a,b) s.t. d(a,b) < epsilon forall epsilon > 0.$ Let $a,b$ denote these specific $a,b$.



Take a sequence in $A$ including $a$ as last element. This sequence must converge to $b$ because of the above statement. This means there exists a sequence in $A$ converging to an element not in $A$. This is not possible since $A$ is closed.



Thus $D(A,B) neq 0.$



Is this proof correct? If it is not, how can I modify it / rewrite it. If it is, why do I need to know that $B$ is compact?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $M$ be a metric space, $Asubset M, Bsubset M, Acap B = emptyset, A text{closed}, B text{compact}.$



Define distance between sets as $D(A,B) = inf d(a,b)$ where $d$ is the metric on $M$.



I'm asked to prove that $D(A,B) > 0$ which is equivalent to proving that $D(A,B) neq 0.$



My attempt:



Assume $D(A,B) = 0.$



This means that $exists (a,b) s.t. d(a,b) < epsilon forall epsilon > 0.$ Let $a,b$ denote these specific $a,b$.



Take a sequence in $A$ including $a$ as last element. This sequence must converge to $b$ because of the above statement. This means there exists a sequence in $A$ converging to an element not in $A$. This is not possible since $A$ is closed.



Thus $D(A,B) neq 0.$



Is this proof correct? If it is not, how can I modify it / rewrite it. If it is, why do I need to know that $B$ is compact?







general-topology proof-verification convergence compactness






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 2 days ago









HeuristicsHeuristics

536212




536212








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You didn't justify why a sequence in $A$ could converge to a point in $B$. Your points $a$ and $b$ vary with $epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    2 days ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You didn't justify why a sequence in $A$ could converge to a point in $B$. Your points $a$ and $b$ vary with $epsilon$.
    $endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    2 days ago








1




1




$begingroup$
You didn't justify why a sequence in $A$ could converge to a point in $B$. Your points $a$ and $b$ vary with $epsilon$.
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
2 days ago




$begingroup$
You didn't justify why a sequence in $A$ could converge to a point in $B$. Your points $a$ and $b$ vary with $epsilon$.
$endgroup$
– Umberto P.
2 days ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















6












$begingroup$

What follows is valid in a metric space, but out of habit I write $|a-b|$ in place of $d(a,b)$.



Every point $x in B$ belongs to the complement of $A$ which is open. Thus, for every $x in B$ there exists $r_x > 0$ with the property that $B(x,r_x) cap A = emptyset$. In particular $|a - x| ge r_x$ for all $x$.



The family ${ B(x,r_x/2) mid x in B}$ covers $B$, and since $B$ is compact there exists a finite subcover which we can label by ${B(x_k,r_k/2)}_{k=1}^n$.



Define $r = min{r_1,ldots,r_n}$ and note $r > 0$.



Select a point $b in B$ and $a in A$.



There exists an index $k$ with the property that $b in B(x_k,r_k/2)$, so that $|b - x_k| < r_k/2$.



For the same index $k$ you have also that $|a - x_k| ge r_k$.



The triangle inequality gives you
$$|a - b| ge |a - x_k| - |b - x_k| > frac{r_k}2 ge frac r2.$$



Since $a,b$ were arbitrary it follows that $d(A,B) ge dfrac r2$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, but where is my proof wrong?
    $endgroup$
    – Heuristics
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Heuristics a sequence has no last element. You need more work on the sequence argument. It can be made to work. E.g. use compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    2 days ago





















1












$begingroup$

For any set $A subseteq X$, the function $f_A:X to [0,infty), x to d(x,A)$ defined on a metric space $X$, is continuous. Also $f_A(p)=0$ iff $p in overline{A}$.



Now apply this for $A$, the closed set, and restrict the domain to the compact set $B$, say. Then $f_A |_{B}$ assumes a minimum $m in [0,infty)$ which cannot be $0$ as $f_p(A)=0$ for $p in A$ iff $p in overline{A} cap B = A cap B = emptyset$. It follows that for all $x in B$, $d(x,A) ge m$, so that $D(A,B) =m >0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    2 Answers
    2






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    6












    $begingroup$

    What follows is valid in a metric space, but out of habit I write $|a-b|$ in place of $d(a,b)$.



    Every point $x in B$ belongs to the complement of $A$ which is open. Thus, for every $x in B$ there exists $r_x > 0$ with the property that $B(x,r_x) cap A = emptyset$. In particular $|a - x| ge r_x$ for all $x$.



    The family ${ B(x,r_x/2) mid x in B}$ covers $B$, and since $B$ is compact there exists a finite subcover which we can label by ${B(x_k,r_k/2)}_{k=1}^n$.



    Define $r = min{r_1,ldots,r_n}$ and note $r > 0$.



    Select a point $b in B$ and $a in A$.



    There exists an index $k$ with the property that $b in B(x_k,r_k/2)$, so that $|b - x_k| < r_k/2$.



    For the same index $k$ you have also that $|a - x_k| ge r_k$.



    The triangle inequality gives you
    $$|a - b| ge |a - x_k| - |b - x_k| > frac{r_k}2 ge frac r2.$$



    Since $a,b$ were arbitrary it follows that $d(A,B) ge dfrac r2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, but where is my proof wrong?
      $endgroup$
      – Heuristics
      2 days ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Heuristics a sequence has no last element. You need more work on the sequence argument. It can be made to work. E.g. use compactness.
      $endgroup$
      – Henno Brandsma
      2 days ago


















    6












    $begingroup$

    What follows is valid in a metric space, but out of habit I write $|a-b|$ in place of $d(a,b)$.



    Every point $x in B$ belongs to the complement of $A$ which is open. Thus, for every $x in B$ there exists $r_x > 0$ with the property that $B(x,r_x) cap A = emptyset$. In particular $|a - x| ge r_x$ for all $x$.



    The family ${ B(x,r_x/2) mid x in B}$ covers $B$, and since $B$ is compact there exists a finite subcover which we can label by ${B(x_k,r_k/2)}_{k=1}^n$.



    Define $r = min{r_1,ldots,r_n}$ and note $r > 0$.



    Select a point $b in B$ and $a in A$.



    There exists an index $k$ with the property that $b in B(x_k,r_k/2)$, so that $|b - x_k| < r_k/2$.



    For the same index $k$ you have also that $|a - x_k| ge r_k$.



    The triangle inequality gives you
    $$|a - b| ge |a - x_k| - |b - x_k| > frac{r_k}2 ge frac r2.$$



    Since $a,b$ were arbitrary it follows that $d(A,B) ge dfrac r2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, but where is my proof wrong?
      $endgroup$
      – Heuristics
      2 days ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Heuristics a sequence has no last element. You need more work on the sequence argument. It can be made to work. E.g. use compactness.
      $endgroup$
      – Henno Brandsma
      2 days ago
















    6












    6








    6





    $begingroup$

    What follows is valid in a metric space, but out of habit I write $|a-b|$ in place of $d(a,b)$.



    Every point $x in B$ belongs to the complement of $A$ which is open. Thus, for every $x in B$ there exists $r_x > 0$ with the property that $B(x,r_x) cap A = emptyset$. In particular $|a - x| ge r_x$ for all $x$.



    The family ${ B(x,r_x/2) mid x in B}$ covers $B$, and since $B$ is compact there exists a finite subcover which we can label by ${B(x_k,r_k/2)}_{k=1}^n$.



    Define $r = min{r_1,ldots,r_n}$ and note $r > 0$.



    Select a point $b in B$ and $a in A$.



    There exists an index $k$ with the property that $b in B(x_k,r_k/2)$, so that $|b - x_k| < r_k/2$.



    For the same index $k$ you have also that $|a - x_k| ge r_k$.



    The triangle inequality gives you
    $$|a - b| ge |a - x_k| - |b - x_k| > frac{r_k}2 ge frac r2.$$



    Since $a,b$ were arbitrary it follows that $d(A,B) ge dfrac r2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    What follows is valid in a metric space, but out of habit I write $|a-b|$ in place of $d(a,b)$.



    Every point $x in B$ belongs to the complement of $A$ which is open. Thus, for every $x in B$ there exists $r_x > 0$ with the property that $B(x,r_x) cap A = emptyset$. In particular $|a - x| ge r_x$ for all $x$.



    The family ${ B(x,r_x/2) mid x in B}$ covers $B$, and since $B$ is compact there exists a finite subcover which we can label by ${B(x_k,r_k/2)}_{k=1}^n$.



    Define $r = min{r_1,ldots,r_n}$ and note $r > 0$.



    Select a point $b in B$ and $a in A$.



    There exists an index $k$ with the property that $b in B(x_k,r_k/2)$, so that $|b - x_k| < r_k/2$.



    For the same index $k$ you have also that $|a - x_k| ge r_k$.



    The triangle inequality gives you
    $$|a - b| ge |a - x_k| - |b - x_k| > frac{r_k}2 ge frac r2.$$



    Since $a,b$ were arbitrary it follows that $d(A,B) ge dfrac r2$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 2 days ago









    Umberto P.Umberto P.

    39.8k13267




    39.8k13267












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, but where is my proof wrong?
      $endgroup$
      – Heuristics
      2 days ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Heuristics a sequence has no last element. You need more work on the sequence argument. It can be made to work. E.g. use compactness.
      $endgroup$
      – Henno Brandsma
      2 days ago




















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, but where is my proof wrong?
      $endgroup$
      – Heuristics
      2 days ago










    • $begingroup$
      @Heuristics a sequence has no last element. You need more work on the sequence argument. It can be made to work. E.g. use compactness.
      $endgroup$
      – Henno Brandsma
      2 days ago


















    $begingroup$
    Thanks, but where is my proof wrong?
    $endgroup$
    – Heuristics
    2 days ago




    $begingroup$
    Thanks, but where is my proof wrong?
    $endgroup$
    – Heuristics
    2 days ago












    $begingroup$
    @Heuristics a sequence has no last element. You need more work on the sequence argument. It can be made to work. E.g. use compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    2 days ago






    $begingroup$
    @Heuristics a sequence has no last element. You need more work on the sequence argument. It can be made to work. E.g. use compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    2 days ago













    1












    $begingroup$

    For any set $A subseteq X$, the function $f_A:X to [0,infty), x to d(x,A)$ defined on a metric space $X$, is continuous. Also $f_A(p)=0$ iff $p in overline{A}$.



    Now apply this for $A$, the closed set, and restrict the domain to the compact set $B$, say. Then $f_A |_{B}$ assumes a minimum $m in [0,infty)$ which cannot be $0$ as $f_p(A)=0$ for $p in A$ iff $p in overline{A} cap B = A cap B = emptyset$. It follows that for all $x in B$, $d(x,A) ge m$, so that $D(A,B) =m >0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      For any set $A subseteq X$, the function $f_A:X to [0,infty), x to d(x,A)$ defined on a metric space $X$, is continuous. Also $f_A(p)=0$ iff $p in overline{A}$.



      Now apply this for $A$, the closed set, and restrict the domain to the compact set $B$, say. Then $f_A |_{B}$ assumes a minimum $m in [0,infty)$ which cannot be $0$ as $f_p(A)=0$ for $p in A$ iff $p in overline{A} cap B = A cap B = emptyset$. It follows that for all $x in B$, $d(x,A) ge m$, so that $D(A,B) =m >0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        For any set $A subseteq X$, the function $f_A:X to [0,infty), x to d(x,A)$ defined on a metric space $X$, is continuous. Also $f_A(p)=0$ iff $p in overline{A}$.



        Now apply this for $A$, the closed set, and restrict the domain to the compact set $B$, say. Then $f_A |_{B}$ assumes a minimum $m in [0,infty)$ which cannot be $0$ as $f_p(A)=0$ for $p in A$ iff $p in overline{A} cap B = A cap B = emptyset$. It follows that for all $x in B$, $d(x,A) ge m$, so that $D(A,B) =m >0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        For any set $A subseteq X$, the function $f_A:X to [0,infty), x to d(x,A)$ defined on a metric space $X$, is continuous. Also $f_A(p)=0$ iff $p in overline{A}$.



        Now apply this for $A$, the closed set, and restrict the domain to the compact set $B$, say. Then $f_A |_{B}$ assumes a minimum $m in [0,infty)$ which cannot be $0$ as $f_p(A)=0$ for $p in A$ iff $p in overline{A} cap B = A cap B = emptyset$. It follows that for all $x in B$, $d(x,A) ge m$, so that $D(A,B) =m >0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 2 days ago









        Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

        112k348120




        112k348120






























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