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How to construct an independent sequence of random variables


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$begingroup$



Let $Q$ be a probability measure on $mathbb{R}$ with distribution function $F$. The inverse distribution function $Y$ on $(0,1)$ is defined by:
$$Y(w) = sup,{xmid F(x)<w}, quad0leq wleq 1$$

(i) Show that the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$.
(ii) For $Q_1,Q_2,..$ a sequence of prob measures on $mathbb{R}$, construct a sequence of r.v's $Y_1,Y_2,..$ on $((0,1),mathcal{B},lambda)$ that are independent and the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$.




My attempt: $F_Y (y) = mathbb{P}(Yleq y) = lambda{w: Y(w)leq y} = lambda{w: wleq F(y)} = F(y)$ and hence the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$. For (ii), I can construct a sequence of inverse distribution functions $Y_i$ such that the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$ but how can I show that they are independent? Thanks and appreciate a hint.










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$



    Let $Q$ be a probability measure on $mathbb{R}$ with distribution function $F$. The inverse distribution function $Y$ on $(0,1)$ is defined by:
    $$Y(w) = sup,{xmid F(x)<w}, quad0leq wleq 1$$

    (i) Show that the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$.
    (ii) For $Q_1,Q_2,..$ a sequence of prob measures on $mathbb{R}$, construct a sequence of r.v's $Y_1,Y_2,..$ on $((0,1),mathcal{B},lambda)$ that are independent and the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$.




    My attempt: $F_Y (y) = mathbb{P}(Yleq y) = lambda{w: Y(w)leq y} = lambda{w: wleq F(y)} = F(y)$ and hence the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$. For (ii), I can construct a sequence of inverse distribution functions $Y_i$ such that the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$ but how can I show that they are independent? Thanks and appreciate a hint.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Let $Q$ be a probability measure on $mathbb{R}$ with distribution function $F$. The inverse distribution function $Y$ on $(0,1)$ is defined by:
      $$Y(w) = sup,{xmid F(x)<w}, quad0leq wleq 1$$

      (i) Show that the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$.
      (ii) For $Q_1,Q_2,..$ a sequence of prob measures on $mathbb{R}$, construct a sequence of r.v's $Y_1,Y_2,..$ on $((0,1),mathcal{B},lambda)$ that are independent and the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$.




      My attempt: $F_Y (y) = mathbb{P}(Yleq y) = lambda{w: Y(w)leq y} = lambda{w: wleq F(y)} = F(y)$ and hence the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$. For (ii), I can construct a sequence of inverse distribution functions $Y_i$ such that the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$ but how can I show that they are independent? Thanks and appreciate a hint.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Let $Q$ be a probability measure on $mathbb{R}$ with distribution function $F$. The inverse distribution function $Y$ on $(0,1)$ is defined by:
      $$Y(w) = sup,{xmid F(x)<w}, quad0leq wleq 1$$

      (i) Show that the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$.
      (ii) For $Q_1,Q_2,..$ a sequence of prob measures on $mathbb{R}$, construct a sequence of r.v's $Y_1,Y_2,..$ on $((0,1),mathcal{B},lambda)$ that are independent and the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$.




      My attempt: $F_Y (y) = mathbb{P}(Yleq y) = lambda{w: Y(w)leq y} = lambda{w: wleq F(y)} = F(y)$ and hence the distribution of $Y$ is $Q$. For (ii), I can construct a sequence of inverse distribution functions $Y_i$ such that the distribution of $Y_i$ is $Q_i$ but how can I show that they are independent? Thanks and appreciate a hint.







      real-analysis probability-theory statistics






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 13 at 16:58









      Brian

      892116




      892116










      asked Mar 13 at 16:47









      manifoldedmanifolded

      49019




      49019






















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