Prove that the family of functions that omit 0 is normalFamily of univalent functions closed under normal...

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Prove that the family of functions that omit 0 is normal


Family of univalent functions closed under normal convergence?Family of One-to-One Analytic Functions is Normalprove normality of famlity of analytic functionsShow that a class of holomorphic functions is a normal family.The Set of Functions satisfying $int_{D}vert f(z)vert (1-vert zvert)^2dA(z)le 1$ is a Normal FamilyFamily of analytic functions from unit disk to the plane minus a line$mathcal{F} subset mathcal{H}(D(0,1))$ with $Re f>0$ and $f(0)=1$ is a normal familyNormal family of functionsWhen does the normality of the family of derivatives imply that the family itself is normal?Prove that the family of functions is normal













0












$begingroup$


I'd love to get some help with the following problem:



Problem: Let $$mathcal G={f:mathbb Dtomathbb Cmid fin Hol(mathbb D ) ,f-is-one-to-one}$$
be the family of univalent analytic functions on the unit disk, and let $$mathcal F={finmathcal F mid 0notin f(mathbb D) } $$
be the family of functions in $mathcal G$ that omit 0.



Prove that $mathcal F$ is a normal family.



Hint: Consider family of square roots with appropriate branches.



My idea: I wanted to show that $mathcal F$ should omit another value (except 0), and than apply Montel's theorem. However, I could not understand how I sould show that.



Any help will be appreciated!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is in $mathcal F$ then $nf$ is in there for any $n$, but any subsequence of $nf$ obviously doesn't converge normally, so I think an extra condition is needed
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 13 at 22:45










  • $begingroup$
    Actually it does converge normally, maybe to the constant function $f=infty$ (for example $f_n (z) = n(z+1)$).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 10:23












  • $begingroup$
    if we accept normal convergence to infinity than the result follows as below
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 11:54
















0












$begingroup$


I'd love to get some help with the following problem:



Problem: Let $$mathcal G={f:mathbb Dtomathbb Cmid fin Hol(mathbb D ) ,f-is-one-to-one}$$
be the family of univalent analytic functions on the unit disk, and let $$mathcal F={finmathcal F mid 0notin f(mathbb D) } $$
be the family of functions in $mathcal G$ that omit 0.



Prove that $mathcal F$ is a normal family.



Hint: Consider family of square roots with appropriate branches.



My idea: I wanted to show that $mathcal F$ should omit another value (except 0), and than apply Montel's theorem. However, I could not understand how I sould show that.



Any help will be appreciated!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is in $mathcal F$ then $nf$ is in there for any $n$, but any subsequence of $nf$ obviously doesn't converge normally, so I think an extra condition is needed
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 13 at 22:45










  • $begingroup$
    Actually it does converge normally, maybe to the constant function $f=infty$ (for example $f_n (z) = n(z+1)$).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 10:23












  • $begingroup$
    if we accept normal convergence to infinity than the result follows as below
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 11:54














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I'd love to get some help with the following problem:



Problem: Let $$mathcal G={f:mathbb Dtomathbb Cmid fin Hol(mathbb D ) ,f-is-one-to-one}$$
be the family of univalent analytic functions on the unit disk, and let $$mathcal F={finmathcal F mid 0notin f(mathbb D) } $$
be the family of functions in $mathcal G$ that omit 0.



Prove that $mathcal F$ is a normal family.



Hint: Consider family of square roots with appropriate branches.



My idea: I wanted to show that $mathcal F$ should omit another value (except 0), and than apply Montel's theorem. However, I could not understand how I sould show that.



Any help will be appreciated!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'd love to get some help with the following problem:



Problem: Let $$mathcal G={f:mathbb Dtomathbb Cmid fin Hol(mathbb D ) ,f-is-one-to-one}$$
be the family of univalent analytic functions on the unit disk, and let $$mathcal F={finmathcal F mid 0notin f(mathbb D) } $$
be the family of functions in $mathcal G$ that omit 0.



Prove that $mathcal F$ is a normal family.



Hint: Consider family of square roots with appropriate branches.



My idea: I wanted to show that $mathcal F$ should omit another value (except 0), and than apply Montel's theorem. However, I could not understand how I sould show that.



Any help will be appreciated!







complex-analysis normal-families






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 13 at 16:46









Yarin LuhmanyYarin Luhmany

362




362












  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is in $mathcal F$ then $nf$ is in there for any $n$, but any subsequence of $nf$ obviously doesn't converge normally, so I think an extra condition is needed
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 13 at 22:45










  • $begingroup$
    Actually it does converge normally, maybe to the constant function $f=infty$ (for example $f_n (z) = n(z+1)$).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 10:23












  • $begingroup$
    if we accept normal convergence to infinity than the result follows as below
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 11:54


















  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is in $mathcal F$ then $nf$ is in there for any $n$, but any subsequence of $nf$ obviously doesn't converge normally, so I think an extra condition is needed
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 13 at 22:45










  • $begingroup$
    Actually it does converge normally, maybe to the constant function $f=infty$ (for example $f_n (z) = n(z+1)$).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 10:23












  • $begingroup$
    if we accept normal convergence to infinity than the result follows as below
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 11:54
















$begingroup$
If $f$ is in $mathcal F$ then $nf$ is in there for any $n$, but any subsequence of $nf$ obviously doesn't converge normally, so I think an extra condition is needed
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 13 at 22:45




$begingroup$
If $f$ is in $mathcal F$ then $nf$ is in there for any $n$, but any subsequence of $nf$ obviously doesn't converge normally, so I think an extra condition is needed
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 13 at 22:45












$begingroup$
Actually it does converge normally, maybe to the constant function $f=infty$ (for example $f_n (z) = n(z+1)$).
$endgroup$
– Yarin Luhmany
Mar 14 at 10:23






$begingroup$
Actually it does converge normally, maybe to the constant function $f=infty$ (for example $f_n (z) = n(z+1)$).
$endgroup$
– Yarin Luhmany
Mar 14 at 10:23














$begingroup$
if we accept normal convergence to infinity than the result follows as below
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 14 at 11:54




$begingroup$
if we accept normal convergence to infinity than the result follows as below
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 14 at 11:54










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Let $f_k(z)=a_k+b_kz+...$ be a sequence in $mathcal F$; we will show that there are three alternatives:



1: $f_k$ contains a "proper" normally convergent subsequence - one converging normally to a non-constant, non-infinity function $f$; by Hurwitz $f$ is univalent and non-zero everywhere so it is in $mathcal F$



2: $f_k$ has a subsequence which converges normally to a finite constant (and all its subsequences are like this or go to infinity)



3: $f_k$ converges normally to infinity (where we mean that in the extended plane sense, or equivalently that on any compact set, $f_k$ get uniformly big)



We use the following two facts:



1: $a_k, b_k neq 0$ since $a_k=f_k(0), b_k=f_k'(0)$



2: $h_k(z)=frac{f_k(z)-a_k}{b_k}$ is a normalized schlicht (univalent) function, the set of which is usually called $mathcal S$, so it satisfies uniform boundness on compact sets, $|h_k(z)| leq frac{1}{1-r^2}, |z| leq r<1$, and their image contains the disk of radius $frac{1}{4}$ around the origin



Translating the second fact to $f_k$ it follows that the image of $f_k-a_k$ contains the (open) disk of radius $frac{|b_k|}{4}$ and since zero is not in the image of $f$, it follows that $a_k$ is not in that disk, which is equivalent to $frac{|a_k|}{|b_k|} geq frac{1}{4}$, so we have four mutually exclusive cases: $a_k$ converges to zero (hence $b_k$ does too), $a_k$ goes to infinity, a combination of the two ($a_k$ splits in subsequences converging to zero and infinity respectively - which we treat like either of the two previous cases, so it will follow, $f_k$ splits into subsequences converging normally to zero and infinity too) or $a_k$ has a subsequence which converges to some finite non-zero $a$, hence taking possibly a subsequence of it, we can assume $b_k$ also converges to some finite $b$ (could be zero now).



In the first case, the local uniform boundness of $h_k$ immediately implies $f_k$ converges normally to zero, while in the fourth case, applying Montel to the subsequence of the $h_k$ given in our assumptions (for which $a_k$ converges to $a$, $b_k$ converges to $b$) we get a $h$ in $mathcal S$, s.t. the subsequence of $h_k$ converges normally to $h$, so the subsequence of $f_k$ converges normally to $a+bh$.
If $b=0$, we get case 2 (constant) with non-zero $a$, if $b neq 0$, Hurwitz shows as noted we are in the proper convergence case 1.



Assume now $a_k$ goes to infinity and take $g_k = frac{1}{f_k}$ which is in $mathcal F$; letting $g_k(z)=c_k+d_kz+...$, we get $a_kc_k=1$, so $c_k$ converges to zero (hence $d_k$ too as noted above), so $g_k$ converges normally to zero, hence $f_k$ converges "normally" to infinity, so we are done with this case too.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thank you very much for your detailed solution. I could not see in which part of the proof you used that fact that $a_k neq 0$ (and the fact that $f_k$ are all omit 0).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 19:55










  • $begingroup$
    Two places: first if $a_k$ could be zero, there is no restriction on $b_k$, restriction that follows from the zero omission everywhere btw, so they can go to infinity, but $f_k$ can oscillate, and second if $a_k$ goes to infinity, we may not be able to say anything about $f_k$ again without considering $frac{1}{f_k}$ and that requires $f_k$ non zero everywhere not only at $0$ which follows from $a_k$ big; the whole space of univalent functions in the disc is not normal even accepting normal convergence at constant infinity
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 20:53












  • $begingroup$
    Think $kz, k(frac{1}{2}-z)$, neither family is normal as it has a common zero while going to infinity everywhere else
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 21:15










  • $begingroup$
    Got it! Thank you very much, again :)
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 21:31











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Let $f_k(z)=a_k+b_kz+...$ be a sequence in $mathcal F$; we will show that there are three alternatives:



1: $f_k$ contains a "proper" normally convergent subsequence - one converging normally to a non-constant, non-infinity function $f$; by Hurwitz $f$ is univalent and non-zero everywhere so it is in $mathcal F$



2: $f_k$ has a subsequence which converges normally to a finite constant (and all its subsequences are like this or go to infinity)



3: $f_k$ converges normally to infinity (where we mean that in the extended plane sense, or equivalently that on any compact set, $f_k$ get uniformly big)



We use the following two facts:



1: $a_k, b_k neq 0$ since $a_k=f_k(0), b_k=f_k'(0)$



2: $h_k(z)=frac{f_k(z)-a_k}{b_k}$ is a normalized schlicht (univalent) function, the set of which is usually called $mathcal S$, so it satisfies uniform boundness on compact sets, $|h_k(z)| leq frac{1}{1-r^2}, |z| leq r<1$, and their image contains the disk of radius $frac{1}{4}$ around the origin



Translating the second fact to $f_k$ it follows that the image of $f_k-a_k$ contains the (open) disk of radius $frac{|b_k|}{4}$ and since zero is not in the image of $f$, it follows that $a_k$ is not in that disk, which is equivalent to $frac{|a_k|}{|b_k|} geq frac{1}{4}$, so we have four mutually exclusive cases: $a_k$ converges to zero (hence $b_k$ does too), $a_k$ goes to infinity, a combination of the two ($a_k$ splits in subsequences converging to zero and infinity respectively - which we treat like either of the two previous cases, so it will follow, $f_k$ splits into subsequences converging normally to zero and infinity too) or $a_k$ has a subsequence which converges to some finite non-zero $a$, hence taking possibly a subsequence of it, we can assume $b_k$ also converges to some finite $b$ (could be zero now).



In the first case, the local uniform boundness of $h_k$ immediately implies $f_k$ converges normally to zero, while in the fourth case, applying Montel to the subsequence of the $h_k$ given in our assumptions (for which $a_k$ converges to $a$, $b_k$ converges to $b$) we get a $h$ in $mathcal S$, s.t. the subsequence of $h_k$ converges normally to $h$, so the subsequence of $f_k$ converges normally to $a+bh$.
If $b=0$, we get case 2 (constant) with non-zero $a$, if $b neq 0$, Hurwitz shows as noted we are in the proper convergence case 1.



Assume now $a_k$ goes to infinity and take $g_k = frac{1}{f_k}$ which is in $mathcal F$; letting $g_k(z)=c_k+d_kz+...$, we get $a_kc_k=1$, so $c_k$ converges to zero (hence $d_k$ too as noted above), so $g_k$ converges normally to zero, hence $f_k$ converges "normally" to infinity, so we are done with this case too.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thank you very much for your detailed solution. I could not see in which part of the proof you used that fact that $a_k neq 0$ (and the fact that $f_k$ are all omit 0).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 19:55










  • $begingroup$
    Two places: first if $a_k$ could be zero, there is no restriction on $b_k$, restriction that follows from the zero omission everywhere btw, so they can go to infinity, but $f_k$ can oscillate, and second if $a_k$ goes to infinity, we may not be able to say anything about $f_k$ again without considering $frac{1}{f_k}$ and that requires $f_k$ non zero everywhere not only at $0$ which follows from $a_k$ big; the whole space of univalent functions in the disc is not normal even accepting normal convergence at constant infinity
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 20:53












  • $begingroup$
    Think $kz, k(frac{1}{2}-z)$, neither family is normal as it has a common zero while going to infinity everywhere else
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 21:15










  • $begingroup$
    Got it! Thank you very much, again :)
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 21:31
















0












$begingroup$

Let $f_k(z)=a_k+b_kz+...$ be a sequence in $mathcal F$; we will show that there are three alternatives:



1: $f_k$ contains a "proper" normally convergent subsequence - one converging normally to a non-constant, non-infinity function $f$; by Hurwitz $f$ is univalent and non-zero everywhere so it is in $mathcal F$



2: $f_k$ has a subsequence which converges normally to a finite constant (and all its subsequences are like this or go to infinity)



3: $f_k$ converges normally to infinity (where we mean that in the extended plane sense, or equivalently that on any compact set, $f_k$ get uniformly big)



We use the following two facts:



1: $a_k, b_k neq 0$ since $a_k=f_k(0), b_k=f_k'(0)$



2: $h_k(z)=frac{f_k(z)-a_k}{b_k}$ is a normalized schlicht (univalent) function, the set of which is usually called $mathcal S$, so it satisfies uniform boundness on compact sets, $|h_k(z)| leq frac{1}{1-r^2}, |z| leq r<1$, and their image contains the disk of radius $frac{1}{4}$ around the origin



Translating the second fact to $f_k$ it follows that the image of $f_k-a_k$ contains the (open) disk of radius $frac{|b_k|}{4}$ and since zero is not in the image of $f$, it follows that $a_k$ is not in that disk, which is equivalent to $frac{|a_k|}{|b_k|} geq frac{1}{4}$, so we have four mutually exclusive cases: $a_k$ converges to zero (hence $b_k$ does too), $a_k$ goes to infinity, a combination of the two ($a_k$ splits in subsequences converging to zero and infinity respectively - which we treat like either of the two previous cases, so it will follow, $f_k$ splits into subsequences converging normally to zero and infinity too) or $a_k$ has a subsequence which converges to some finite non-zero $a$, hence taking possibly a subsequence of it, we can assume $b_k$ also converges to some finite $b$ (could be zero now).



In the first case, the local uniform boundness of $h_k$ immediately implies $f_k$ converges normally to zero, while in the fourth case, applying Montel to the subsequence of the $h_k$ given in our assumptions (for which $a_k$ converges to $a$, $b_k$ converges to $b$) we get a $h$ in $mathcal S$, s.t. the subsequence of $h_k$ converges normally to $h$, so the subsequence of $f_k$ converges normally to $a+bh$.
If $b=0$, we get case 2 (constant) with non-zero $a$, if $b neq 0$, Hurwitz shows as noted we are in the proper convergence case 1.



Assume now $a_k$ goes to infinity and take $g_k = frac{1}{f_k}$ which is in $mathcal F$; letting $g_k(z)=c_k+d_kz+...$, we get $a_kc_k=1$, so $c_k$ converges to zero (hence $d_k$ too as noted above), so $g_k$ converges normally to zero, hence $f_k$ converges "normally" to infinity, so we are done with this case too.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thank you very much for your detailed solution. I could not see in which part of the proof you used that fact that $a_k neq 0$ (and the fact that $f_k$ are all omit 0).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 19:55










  • $begingroup$
    Two places: first if $a_k$ could be zero, there is no restriction on $b_k$, restriction that follows from the zero omission everywhere btw, so they can go to infinity, but $f_k$ can oscillate, and second if $a_k$ goes to infinity, we may not be able to say anything about $f_k$ again without considering $frac{1}{f_k}$ and that requires $f_k$ non zero everywhere not only at $0$ which follows from $a_k$ big; the whole space of univalent functions in the disc is not normal even accepting normal convergence at constant infinity
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 20:53












  • $begingroup$
    Think $kz, k(frac{1}{2}-z)$, neither family is normal as it has a common zero while going to infinity everywhere else
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 21:15










  • $begingroup$
    Got it! Thank you very much, again :)
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 21:31














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Let $f_k(z)=a_k+b_kz+...$ be a sequence in $mathcal F$; we will show that there are three alternatives:



1: $f_k$ contains a "proper" normally convergent subsequence - one converging normally to a non-constant, non-infinity function $f$; by Hurwitz $f$ is univalent and non-zero everywhere so it is in $mathcal F$



2: $f_k$ has a subsequence which converges normally to a finite constant (and all its subsequences are like this or go to infinity)



3: $f_k$ converges normally to infinity (where we mean that in the extended plane sense, or equivalently that on any compact set, $f_k$ get uniformly big)



We use the following two facts:



1: $a_k, b_k neq 0$ since $a_k=f_k(0), b_k=f_k'(0)$



2: $h_k(z)=frac{f_k(z)-a_k}{b_k}$ is a normalized schlicht (univalent) function, the set of which is usually called $mathcal S$, so it satisfies uniform boundness on compact sets, $|h_k(z)| leq frac{1}{1-r^2}, |z| leq r<1$, and their image contains the disk of radius $frac{1}{4}$ around the origin



Translating the second fact to $f_k$ it follows that the image of $f_k-a_k$ contains the (open) disk of radius $frac{|b_k|}{4}$ and since zero is not in the image of $f$, it follows that $a_k$ is not in that disk, which is equivalent to $frac{|a_k|}{|b_k|} geq frac{1}{4}$, so we have four mutually exclusive cases: $a_k$ converges to zero (hence $b_k$ does too), $a_k$ goes to infinity, a combination of the two ($a_k$ splits in subsequences converging to zero and infinity respectively - which we treat like either of the two previous cases, so it will follow, $f_k$ splits into subsequences converging normally to zero and infinity too) or $a_k$ has a subsequence which converges to some finite non-zero $a$, hence taking possibly a subsequence of it, we can assume $b_k$ also converges to some finite $b$ (could be zero now).



In the first case, the local uniform boundness of $h_k$ immediately implies $f_k$ converges normally to zero, while in the fourth case, applying Montel to the subsequence of the $h_k$ given in our assumptions (for which $a_k$ converges to $a$, $b_k$ converges to $b$) we get a $h$ in $mathcal S$, s.t. the subsequence of $h_k$ converges normally to $h$, so the subsequence of $f_k$ converges normally to $a+bh$.
If $b=0$, we get case 2 (constant) with non-zero $a$, if $b neq 0$, Hurwitz shows as noted we are in the proper convergence case 1.



Assume now $a_k$ goes to infinity and take $g_k = frac{1}{f_k}$ which is in $mathcal F$; letting $g_k(z)=c_k+d_kz+...$, we get $a_kc_k=1$, so $c_k$ converges to zero (hence $d_k$ too as noted above), so $g_k$ converges normally to zero, hence $f_k$ converges "normally" to infinity, so we are done with this case too.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Let $f_k(z)=a_k+b_kz+...$ be a sequence in $mathcal F$; we will show that there are three alternatives:



1: $f_k$ contains a "proper" normally convergent subsequence - one converging normally to a non-constant, non-infinity function $f$; by Hurwitz $f$ is univalent and non-zero everywhere so it is in $mathcal F$



2: $f_k$ has a subsequence which converges normally to a finite constant (and all its subsequences are like this or go to infinity)



3: $f_k$ converges normally to infinity (where we mean that in the extended plane sense, or equivalently that on any compact set, $f_k$ get uniformly big)



We use the following two facts:



1: $a_k, b_k neq 0$ since $a_k=f_k(0), b_k=f_k'(0)$



2: $h_k(z)=frac{f_k(z)-a_k}{b_k}$ is a normalized schlicht (univalent) function, the set of which is usually called $mathcal S$, so it satisfies uniform boundness on compact sets, $|h_k(z)| leq frac{1}{1-r^2}, |z| leq r<1$, and their image contains the disk of radius $frac{1}{4}$ around the origin



Translating the second fact to $f_k$ it follows that the image of $f_k-a_k$ contains the (open) disk of radius $frac{|b_k|}{4}$ and since zero is not in the image of $f$, it follows that $a_k$ is not in that disk, which is equivalent to $frac{|a_k|}{|b_k|} geq frac{1}{4}$, so we have four mutually exclusive cases: $a_k$ converges to zero (hence $b_k$ does too), $a_k$ goes to infinity, a combination of the two ($a_k$ splits in subsequences converging to zero and infinity respectively - which we treat like either of the two previous cases, so it will follow, $f_k$ splits into subsequences converging normally to zero and infinity too) or $a_k$ has a subsequence which converges to some finite non-zero $a$, hence taking possibly a subsequence of it, we can assume $b_k$ also converges to some finite $b$ (could be zero now).



In the first case, the local uniform boundness of $h_k$ immediately implies $f_k$ converges normally to zero, while in the fourth case, applying Montel to the subsequence of the $h_k$ given in our assumptions (for which $a_k$ converges to $a$, $b_k$ converges to $b$) we get a $h$ in $mathcal S$, s.t. the subsequence of $h_k$ converges normally to $h$, so the subsequence of $f_k$ converges normally to $a+bh$.
If $b=0$, we get case 2 (constant) with non-zero $a$, if $b neq 0$, Hurwitz shows as noted we are in the proper convergence case 1.



Assume now $a_k$ goes to infinity and take $g_k = frac{1}{f_k}$ which is in $mathcal F$; letting $g_k(z)=c_k+d_kz+...$, we get $a_kc_k=1$, so $c_k$ converges to zero (hence $d_k$ too as noted above), so $g_k$ converges normally to zero, hence $f_k$ converges "normally" to infinity, so we are done with this case too.







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edited Mar 14 at 12:39

























answered Mar 14 at 12:25









ConradConrad

1,14845




1,14845












  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thank you very much for your detailed solution. I could not see in which part of the proof you used that fact that $a_k neq 0$ (and the fact that $f_k$ are all omit 0).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 19:55










  • $begingroup$
    Two places: first if $a_k$ could be zero, there is no restriction on $b_k$, restriction that follows from the zero omission everywhere btw, so they can go to infinity, but $f_k$ can oscillate, and second if $a_k$ goes to infinity, we may not be able to say anything about $f_k$ again without considering $frac{1}{f_k}$ and that requires $f_k$ non zero everywhere not only at $0$ which follows from $a_k$ big; the whole space of univalent functions in the disc is not normal even accepting normal convergence at constant infinity
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 20:53












  • $begingroup$
    Think $kz, k(frac{1}{2}-z)$, neither family is normal as it has a common zero while going to infinity everywhere else
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 21:15










  • $begingroup$
    Got it! Thank you very much, again :)
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 21:31


















  • $begingroup$
    Wow! Thank you very much for your detailed solution. I could not see in which part of the proof you used that fact that $a_k neq 0$ (and the fact that $f_k$ are all omit 0).
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 19:55










  • $begingroup$
    Two places: first if $a_k$ could be zero, there is no restriction on $b_k$, restriction that follows from the zero omission everywhere btw, so they can go to infinity, but $f_k$ can oscillate, and second if $a_k$ goes to infinity, we may not be able to say anything about $f_k$ again without considering $frac{1}{f_k}$ and that requires $f_k$ non zero everywhere not only at $0$ which follows from $a_k$ big; the whole space of univalent functions in the disc is not normal even accepting normal convergence at constant infinity
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 20:53












  • $begingroup$
    Think $kz, k(frac{1}{2}-z)$, neither family is normal as it has a common zero while going to infinity everywhere else
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 14 at 21:15










  • $begingroup$
    Got it! Thank you very much, again :)
    $endgroup$
    – Yarin Luhmany
    Mar 14 at 21:31
















$begingroup$
Wow! Thank you very much for your detailed solution. I could not see in which part of the proof you used that fact that $a_k neq 0$ (and the fact that $f_k$ are all omit 0).
$endgroup$
– Yarin Luhmany
Mar 14 at 19:55




$begingroup$
Wow! Thank you very much for your detailed solution. I could not see in which part of the proof you used that fact that $a_k neq 0$ (and the fact that $f_k$ are all omit 0).
$endgroup$
– Yarin Luhmany
Mar 14 at 19:55












$begingroup$
Two places: first if $a_k$ could be zero, there is no restriction on $b_k$, restriction that follows from the zero omission everywhere btw, so they can go to infinity, but $f_k$ can oscillate, and second if $a_k$ goes to infinity, we may not be able to say anything about $f_k$ again without considering $frac{1}{f_k}$ and that requires $f_k$ non zero everywhere not only at $0$ which follows from $a_k$ big; the whole space of univalent functions in the disc is not normal even accepting normal convergence at constant infinity
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 14 at 20:53






$begingroup$
Two places: first if $a_k$ could be zero, there is no restriction on $b_k$, restriction that follows from the zero omission everywhere btw, so they can go to infinity, but $f_k$ can oscillate, and second if $a_k$ goes to infinity, we may not be able to say anything about $f_k$ again without considering $frac{1}{f_k}$ and that requires $f_k$ non zero everywhere not only at $0$ which follows from $a_k$ big; the whole space of univalent functions in the disc is not normal even accepting normal convergence at constant infinity
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 14 at 20:53














$begingroup$
Think $kz, k(frac{1}{2}-z)$, neither family is normal as it has a common zero while going to infinity everywhere else
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 14 at 21:15




$begingroup$
Think $kz, k(frac{1}{2}-z)$, neither family is normal as it has a common zero while going to infinity everywhere else
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 14 at 21:15












$begingroup$
Got it! Thank you very much, again :)
$endgroup$
– Yarin Luhmany
Mar 14 at 21:31




$begingroup$
Got it! Thank you very much, again :)
$endgroup$
– Yarin Luhmany
Mar 14 at 21:31


















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