Check if 1-x is completely Monotonic functiona problem on uniform convergence of monotonic increasing...

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Check if 1-x is completely Monotonic function


a problem on uniform convergence of monotonic increasing functionDifferentiability of monotonic functionsHow can I tell if a function is a monotonic transformation?Technical name for an almost-monotonic functionShow function is monotonic and if it has maximum or minimum without second derivativeAre there cases where using the definition is easier than using the derivative to study the monotonic behaviour of a function?Monotonicity of $(f circ f)$ and $(f circ f circ f)$ for strictly monotonic $f$Monotonic function is rectificiableProve monotonic function on $mathbb{R}$ under given conditionWhy does a monotonic function always have a positive rate of change?













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I had a question about how can I check whether $f(x)=1-x$ is completely monotonic. Could somebody provide a simple example based on this function.










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    $begingroup$


    I had a question about how can I check whether $f(x)=1-x$ is completely monotonic. Could somebody provide a simple example based on this function.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















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      0





      $begingroup$


      I had a question about how can I check whether $f(x)=1-x$ is completely monotonic. Could somebody provide a simple example based on this function.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I had a question about how can I check whether $f(x)=1-x$ is completely monotonic. Could somebody provide a simple example based on this function.







      real-analysis functions derivatives monotone-functions






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      asked Mar 12 at 15:23









      AlexAlex

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      115






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          According to this, a completely monotonic function must satisty $$ (-1)^n frac {d^n}{dt^n}f(t)ge0$$ for all nonnegative $n$ and $t>0$; the special case $n=0$ reduces to requiring $f$ non-negative on $(0,infty)$. Which your $f$ clearly does not satisfy.



          The characterization of completely monotone functions as Laplace transforms of non-negative measures is also a tip-off: if $x=2$, say, you would be representing $-1$ as the integral of a non-negative function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @kimchi lover. But the above function satisfies $ ( - 1 ) ^ { n } frac { d ^ { n } } { d t ^ { n } } f ( t ) geq 0 $: $(-1)f'(x) = -1 (-1) =1geq0$, $(-1)^2f''(x)=(-1)^2cdot0 =0 geq0$ etc.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 15:43












          • $begingroup$
            Brilliant! Many thanks @kimchi lover, this explanation is much more clear!
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 16:20











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          0












          $begingroup$

          According to this, a completely monotonic function must satisty $$ (-1)^n frac {d^n}{dt^n}f(t)ge0$$ for all nonnegative $n$ and $t>0$; the special case $n=0$ reduces to requiring $f$ non-negative on $(0,infty)$. Which your $f$ clearly does not satisfy.



          The characterization of completely monotone functions as Laplace transforms of non-negative measures is also a tip-off: if $x=2$, say, you would be representing $-1$ as the integral of a non-negative function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @kimchi lover. But the above function satisfies $ ( - 1 ) ^ { n } frac { d ^ { n } } { d t ^ { n } } f ( t ) geq 0 $: $(-1)f'(x) = -1 (-1) =1geq0$, $(-1)^2f''(x)=(-1)^2cdot0 =0 geq0$ etc.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 15:43












          • $begingroup$
            Brilliant! Many thanks @kimchi lover, this explanation is much more clear!
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 16:20
















          0












          $begingroup$

          According to this, a completely monotonic function must satisty $$ (-1)^n frac {d^n}{dt^n}f(t)ge0$$ for all nonnegative $n$ and $t>0$; the special case $n=0$ reduces to requiring $f$ non-negative on $(0,infty)$. Which your $f$ clearly does not satisfy.



          The characterization of completely monotone functions as Laplace transforms of non-negative measures is also a tip-off: if $x=2$, say, you would be representing $-1$ as the integral of a non-negative function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @kimchi lover. But the above function satisfies $ ( - 1 ) ^ { n } frac { d ^ { n } } { d t ^ { n } } f ( t ) geq 0 $: $(-1)f'(x) = -1 (-1) =1geq0$, $(-1)^2f''(x)=(-1)^2cdot0 =0 geq0$ etc.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 15:43












          • $begingroup$
            Brilliant! Many thanks @kimchi lover, this explanation is much more clear!
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 16:20














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          According to this, a completely monotonic function must satisty $$ (-1)^n frac {d^n}{dt^n}f(t)ge0$$ for all nonnegative $n$ and $t>0$; the special case $n=0$ reduces to requiring $f$ non-negative on $(0,infty)$. Which your $f$ clearly does not satisfy.



          The characterization of completely monotone functions as Laplace transforms of non-negative measures is also a tip-off: if $x=2$, say, you would be representing $-1$ as the integral of a non-negative function.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          According to this, a completely monotonic function must satisty $$ (-1)^n frac {d^n}{dt^n}f(t)ge0$$ for all nonnegative $n$ and $t>0$; the special case $n=0$ reduces to requiring $f$ non-negative on $(0,infty)$. Which your $f$ clearly does not satisfy.



          The characterization of completely monotone functions as Laplace transforms of non-negative measures is also a tip-off: if $x=2$, say, you would be representing $-1$ as the integral of a non-negative function.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 12 at 16:00

























          answered Mar 12 at 15:40









          kimchi loverkimchi lover

          11.3k31229




          11.3k31229












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @kimchi lover. But the above function satisfies $ ( - 1 ) ^ { n } frac { d ^ { n } } { d t ^ { n } } f ( t ) geq 0 $: $(-1)f'(x) = -1 (-1) =1geq0$, $(-1)^2f''(x)=(-1)^2cdot0 =0 geq0$ etc.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 15:43












          • $begingroup$
            Brilliant! Many thanks @kimchi lover, this explanation is much more clear!
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 16:20


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks @kimchi lover. But the above function satisfies $ ( - 1 ) ^ { n } frac { d ^ { n } } { d t ^ { n } } f ( t ) geq 0 $: $(-1)f'(x) = -1 (-1) =1geq0$, $(-1)^2f''(x)=(-1)^2cdot0 =0 geq0$ etc.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 15:43












          • $begingroup$
            Brilliant! Many thanks @kimchi lover, this explanation is much more clear!
            $endgroup$
            – Alex
            Mar 12 at 16:20
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks @kimchi lover. But the above function satisfies $ ( - 1 ) ^ { n } frac { d ^ { n } } { d t ^ { n } } f ( t ) geq 0 $: $(-1)f'(x) = -1 (-1) =1geq0$, $(-1)^2f''(x)=(-1)^2cdot0 =0 geq0$ etc.
          $endgroup$
          – Alex
          Mar 12 at 15:43






          $begingroup$
          Thanks @kimchi lover. But the above function satisfies $ ( - 1 ) ^ { n } frac { d ^ { n } } { d t ^ { n } } f ( t ) geq 0 $: $(-1)f'(x) = -1 (-1) =1geq0$, $(-1)^2f''(x)=(-1)^2cdot0 =0 geq0$ etc.
          $endgroup$
          – Alex
          Mar 12 at 15:43














          $begingroup$
          Brilliant! Many thanks @kimchi lover, this explanation is much more clear!
          $endgroup$
          – Alex
          Mar 12 at 16:20




          $begingroup$
          Brilliant! Many thanks @kimchi lover, this explanation is much more clear!
          $endgroup$
          – Alex
          Mar 12 at 16:20


















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