What's the generalisation of the quotient rule for higher derivatives?Is there a rule of integration that...

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What's the generalisation of the quotient rule for higher derivatives?


Is there a rule of integration that corresponds to the quotient rule?How is Leibniz's rule for the derivative of a product related to the binomial formula?Product and Quotient rule for Fréchet derivativesproving the quotient rule for derivativesConvention verses memory: The quotient rule v product rule for derivativesFlawed proof of the quotient rule for differentiationDerivation for quotient rule helpHigher order derivatives of the conjugate of a functionWhy not learn the multi-variate chain rule in Calculus I?Quotient rule/Quotient rule













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I know that the product rule is generalised by Leibniz's general rule and the chain rule by Faà di Bruno's formula, but what about the quotient rule? Is there a generalisation for it analogous to these? Wikipedia mentions both Leibniz's general rule and Faà di Bruno's formula for the product and the chain rule, but rather nothing for the quotient rule.










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  • 3




    $begingroup$
    that's because you can apply Faa di Bruno's formula to g(x)^{-1} and then the product rule to f(x) and g(x)^{-1}.
    $endgroup$
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Sep 24 '10 at 5:00


















8












$begingroup$


I know that the product rule is generalised by Leibniz's general rule and the chain rule by Faà di Bruno's formula, but what about the quotient rule? Is there a generalisation for it analogous to these? Wikipedia mentions both Leibniz's general rule and Faà di Bruno's formula for the product and the chain rule, but rather nothing for the quotient rule.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    that's because you can apply Faa di Bruno's formula to g(x)^{-1} and then the product rule to f(x) and g(x)^{-1}.
    $endgroup$
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Sep 24 '10 at 5:00
















8












8








8


2



$begingroup$


I know that the product rule is generalised by Leibniz's general rule and the chain rule by Faà di Bruno's formula, but what about the quotient rule? Is there a generalisation for it analogous to these? Wikipedia mentions both Leibniz's general rule and Faà di Bruno's formula for the product and the chain rule, but rather nothing for the quotient rule.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know that the product rule is generalised by Leibniz's general rule and the chain rule by Faà di Bruno's formula, but what about the quotient rule? Is there a generalisation for it analogous to these? Wikipedia mentions both Leibniz's general rule and Faà di Bruno's formula for the product and the chain rule, but rather nothing for the quotient rule.







calculus analysis






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edited Sep 24 '10 at 5:01







Quest

















asked Sep 24 '10 at 4:55









QuestQuest

4314




4314








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    that's because you can apply Faa di Bruno's formula to g(x)^{-1} and then the product rule to f(x) and g(x)^{-1}.
    $endgroup$
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Sep 24 '10 at 5:00
















  • 3




    $begingroup$
    that's because you can apply Faa di Bruno's formula to g(x)^{-1} and then the product rule to f(x) and g(x)^{-1}.
    $endgroup$
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Sep 24 '10 at 5:00










3




3




$begingroup$
that's because you can apply Faa di Bruno's formula to g(x)^{-1} and then the product rule to f(x) and g(x)^{-1}.
$endgroup$
– Qiaochu Yuan
Sep 24 '10 at 5:00






$begingroup$
that's because you can apply Faa di Bruno's formula to g(x)^{-1} and then the product rule to f(x) and g(x)^{-1}.
$endgroup$
– Qiaochu Yuan
Sep 24 '10 at 5:00












9 Answers
9






active

oldest

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3












$begingroup$

As others have already said, you just apply the product rule to $f.g^{-1}.$ However, the is an
American Mathematical Monthly article on how NOT to do it, which you may find instructive.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    The answer is:



    $frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) = sum_{k=0}^n {(-1)^k tbinom{n}{k} frac{d^{n-k}left(f(x)right)}{dx^{n-k}}}frac{A_k}{g_{(x)}^{k+1}} $



    where:



    $A_0=1$



    $A_n=nfrac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx} A_{n-1}-g(x)frac{dleft(A_{n-1}right)}{dx}$



    for example let $n=3$:



    $frac{d^3}{dx^3} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) =frac{1}{g(x)} frac{d^3left(f(x)right)}{dx^3}-frac{3}{g^2(x)}frac{d^2left(f(x)right)}{dx^2}left[frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right] + frac{3}{g^3(x)}frac{dleft(f(x)right)}{d{x}}left[2left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^2-g(x)frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}right]-frac{f(x)}{g^4(x)}left[6left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^3-6g(x)frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}+g^2(x)frac{d^3left(g(x)right)}{dx^3}right]$



    Relation with Faa' di Bruno coefficents:



    The $A_n$ have also a combinatorial form, similar to the Faa' di Bruno coefficents (ref http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fa%C3%A0_di_Bruno).



    An explication via an example (with for shortness
    $g'=frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx}$, $g''=frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}$, etc.):



    Let we want to find $A_4$.
    The partitions of 4 are: $1+1+1+1, 1+1+2, 1+3, 4, 2+2$.
    Now for each partition we can use the following pattern:



    $1+1+1+1 leftrightarrow C_1g'g'g'g'=C_1left(g'right)^4$



    $1+1+2+0 leftrightarrow C_2g'g'g''g=C_2gleft(g'right)^2g''$



    $1+3+0+0 leftrightarrow C_3g'g'''gg=C_3left(gright)^2g'g'''$



    $4+0+0+0 leftrightarrow C_4g''''ggg=C_4left(gright)^3g''''$



    $2+2+0+0 leftrightarrow C_5g''g''gg=C_5left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$



    with $C_i=(-1)^{(4-t)}frac{4!t!}{m_1!,m_2!,m_3!,cdots 1!^{m_1},2!^{m_2},3!^{m_3},cdots}$ (ref. closed-form of the Faà di Bruno coefficents)



    where $t$ is the numers of partition items different of $0$, and $m_i$ is the numer of i.



    We have $C_1=24$ (with $m_1=4, t=4$), $C_2=-36$ (with $m_1=2, m_2=1, t=3$), $C_3=8$ (with $m_1=1, m_3=1, t=2$), $C_4=-1$ (with $m_4=2, t=1$), $C_5=6$ (with $m_2=2,t=2$).



    Finally $A_4$ is the sum of the formula found for each partition, i.e.



    $A_4=24left(g'right)^4-36gleft(g'right)^2g''+8left(gright)^2g'g'''-left(gright)^3g''''+6left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      2












      $begingroup$

      As others have pointed out, the quotient rule is actually a form of a product rule. Just using Leibniz rule for getting higher order derivatives of product of a function-take a look here.



      http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Leibniz_rule






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        2












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        I found a pdf online that had a result for a general formula for $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ). $$



        Although I cannot find the resource again (I am looking because it had a proof), one formula is
        $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} (f^{(n)}(x))-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!}.$$ Now don't attribute this to me, as I referenced from a source I am trying to find again. It, for me, is impractical and apply the product rule for $fcdot g^{-1}$ is a lot easier, but I think the general formula is pretty good to know.






        share|cite|improve this answer











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        • $begingroup$
          Found the pdf, here.
          $endgroup$
          – user124862
          Feb 28 '14 at 1:52










        • $begingroup$
          Your link doesn't work anymore...
          $endgroup$
          – draks ...
          Apr 11 '17 at 20:17










        • $begingroup$
          Is the little $(j-1)$ in the superscript a power or a derivative? If it's a derivative, this formula is useless.
          $endgroup$
          – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
          Feb 28 at 15:43










        • $begingroup$
          I mean, it wouldn't be an explicit equation, just a recurrence relation (just missed the comment editing time).
          $endgroup$
          – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
          Feb 28 at 15:50



















        1












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        Quotient Rule is actually Product Rule.



        $D(u/v) = D(uw)$ where $w = 1/v$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          Please help me with the notation.
          $endgroup$
          – Pratik Deoghare
          Sep 24 '10 at 5:02



















        1












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        I'm checking @Mohammad Al Jamal's formula with SymPy, and I can verify it's true (barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term) for up to $n = 16$, at least (it gets really slow after that).




        import sympy as sp

        k = sp.Symbol('k'); x = sp.Symbol('x'); f = sp.Function('f'); g = sp.Function('g')

        n = 0
        while True:
        fgn = sp.diff(f(x) / g(x), x, n)
        guess = sp.summation((-1) ** k * sp.binomial(n + 1, k + 1)
        * sp.diff(f(x) * (g(x)) ** k, x, n)/(g(x) ** (k + 1)), (k, 0, n))
        print("{} for n = {}".format(sp.expand(guess - fgn) == 0, n))
        n += 1


        This is quite surprising to me -- I didn't expect there to be such a simple and straightforward expression for $(f(x)/g(x))^{(n)}$, and haven't seen his formula anywhere before. I tried some inductive proofs, but I haven't succeeded in proving it yet.






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        • $begingroup$
          you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
          $endgroup$
          – Mohammad Al Jamal
          Mar 2 at 12:48



















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        $begingroup$

        i state this without proof, for the proof is tedious and lengthy.
        $$left(frac{f(x)}{g(x)}right)^{(n)}=frac{1}{g(x)}sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{k}binom{n+1}{k+1}frac{left(f(x)g^{k}(x)right)^{(n)}}{g^{k}(x)}
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$









        • 1




          $begingroup$
          What the heck, this seems to be correct (testing upto $n = 2$), barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term. I wasn't expecting there to be such a simple expression. Any hints about how to go about proving this (how'd you find it, anyway)?
          $endgroup$
          – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
          Mar 1 at 11:26








        • 1




          $begingroup$
          you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
          $endgroup$
          – Mohammad Al Jamal
          Mar 2 at 12:48










        • $begingroup$
          Did you find it?
          $endgroup$
          – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
          Mar 4 at 22:00










        • $begingroup$
          a combination of Faa di bruno's formula, and induction.
          $endgroup$
          – Mohammad Al Jamal
          Mar 7 at 8:29










        • $begingroup$
          Ah, wait -- it seems it can be proven from the expression in giuseppe's answer.
          $endgroup$
          – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
          Mar 10 at 15:32



















        1












        $begingroup$

        The answer by Stopple should be corrected as follows.
        $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} left( f^{(n)}(x)-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!} right). $$
        If we let $h(x)=f(x)/g(x)$, above can be also written as follows suppressing the independent variable $x$
        $$ h^{(n)} = frac{1}{g} left( f^{(n)} -sum_{j=1}^{n} binom{n}{j} h^{(n-j)}g^{(j)} right).$$



        The proof is straightforward by induction.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$





















          0












          $begingroup$

          The aim is to get a non-recursive expression in dependence of the higher derivatives of the functions in the numerator and denominator. The $n$-th derivative of the reciprocal of an arbitrary function doesn't have a simple expression. It has to be treated as composition of functions and needs Faà di Bruno's formula therefore.



          Applying General Leibniz rule and Faà di Bruno's formula, one gets the following Higher Quotient Rule:



          $$frac{d^n}{dx^n}frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=sum_{i=0}^{n}{nchoose i}f^{(i)}(x)sum_{k=0}^{n-i}(-1)^{k}k!g(x)^{-k-1}B_{n-i,k}(g(x)).$$



          $B_{n,k}(g(x))=B_{n,k}(g^{(1)}(x),g^{(2)}(x),...,g^{(n-k+1)}(x))$ is the partial exponential Bell polynomial of the second kind:



          $$B_{n,k}(g(x))=sum_{sum_{t=1}^{n}tk_{t}=natopsum_{t=1}^{n}k_{t}=k}frac{n!}{prod_{i=1}^{n}i!^{k_{i}}k_{i}!}prod_{i=1}^{n}{g^{(i)}(x)}^{k_{i}}.$$



          In 2012, I wrote a still unpublished article "On partial Bell polynomials for the higher derivatives of composed functions".






          share|cite|improve this answer











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            9 Answers
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            9 Answers
            9






            active

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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            3












            $begingroup$

            As others have already said, you just apply the product rule to $f.g^{-1}.$ However, the is an
            American Mathematical Monthly article on how NOT to do it, which you may find instructive.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              As others have already said, you just apply the product rule to $f.g^{-1}.$ However, the is an
              American Mathematical Monthly article on how NOT to do it, which you may find instructive.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                As others have already said, you just apply the product rule to $f.g^{-1}.$ However, the is an
                American Mathematical Monthly article on how NOT to do it, which you may find instructive.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                As others have already said, you just apply the product rule to $f.g^{-1}.$ However, the is an
                American Mathematical Monthly article on how NOT to do it, which you may find instructive.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Sep 24 '10 at 11:45









                Derek JenningsDerek Jennings

                12k3055




                12k3055























                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    The answer is:



                    $frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) = sum_{k=0}^n {(-1)^k tbinom{n}{k} frac{d^{n-k}left(f(x)right)}{dx^{n-k}}}frac{A_k}{g_{(x)}^{k+1}} $



                    where:



                    $A_0=1$



                    $A_n=nfrac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx} A_{n-1}-g(x)frac{dleft(A_{n-1}right)}{dx}$



                    for example let $n=3$:



                    $frac{d^3}{dx^3} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) =frac{1}{g(x)} frac{d^3left(f(x)right)}{dx^3}-frac{3}{g^2(x)}frac{d^2left(f(x)right)}{dx^2}left[frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right] + frac{3}{g^3(x)}frac{dleft(f(x)right)}{d{x}}left[2left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^2-g(x)frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}right]-frac{f(x)}{g^4(x)}left[6left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^3-6g(x)frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}+g^2(x)frac{d^3left(g(x)right)}{dx^3}right]$



                    Relation with Faa' di Bruno coefficents:



                    The $A_n$ have also a combinatorial form, similar to the Faa' di Bruno coefficents (ref http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fa%C3%A0_di_Bruno).



                    An explication via an example (with for shortness
                    $g'=frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx}$, $g''=frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}$, etc.):



                    Let we want to find $A_4$.
                    The partitions of 4 are: $1+1+1+1, 1+1+2, 1+3, 4, 2+2$.
                    Now for each partition we can use the following pattern:



                    $1+1+1+1 leftrightarrow C_1g'g'g'g'=C_1left(g'right)^4$



                    $1+1+2+0 leftrightarrow C_2g'g'g''g=C_2gleft(g'right)^2g''$



                    $1+3+0+0 leftrightarrow C_3g'g'''gg=C_3left(gright)^2g'g'''$



                    $4+0+0+0 leftrightarrow C_4g''''ggg=C_4left(gright)^3g''''$



                    $2+2+0+0 leftrightarrow C_5g''g''gg=C_5left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$



                    with $C_i=(-1)^{(4-t)}frac{4!t!}{m_1!,m_2!,m_3!,cdots 1!^{m_1},2!^{m_2},3!^{m_3},cdots}$ (ref. closed-form of the Faà di Bruno coefficents)



                    where $t$ is the numers of partition items different of $0$, and $m_i$ is the numer of i.



                    We have $C_1=24$ (with $m_1=4, t=4$), $C_2=-36$ (with $m_1=2, m_2=1, t=3$), $C_3=8$ (with $m_1=1, m_3=1, t=2$), $C_4=-1$ (with $m_4=2, t=1$), $C_5=6$ (with $m_2=2,t=2$).



                    Finally $A_4$ is the sum of the formula found for each partition, i.e.



                    $A_4=24left(g'right)^4-36gleft(g'right)^2g''+8left(gright)^2g'g'''-left(gright)^3g''''+6left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$


















                      3












                      $begingroup$

                      The answer is:



                      $frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) = sum_{k=0}^n {(-1)^k tbinom{n}{k} frac{d^{n-k}left(f(x)right)}{dx^{n-k}}}frac{A_k}{g_{(x)}^{k+1}} $



                      where:



                      $A_0=1$



                      $A_n=nfrac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx} A_{n-1}-g(x)frac{dleft(A_{n-1}right)}{dx}$



                      for example let $n=3$:



                      $frac{d^3}{dx^3} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) =frac{1}{g(x)} frac{d^3left(f(x)right)}{dx^3}-frac{3}{g^2(x)}frac{d^2left(f(x)right)}{dx^2}left[frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right] + frac{3}{g^3(x)}frac{dleft(f(x)right)}{d{x}}left[2left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^2-g(x)frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}right]-frac{f(x)}{g^4(x)}left[6left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^3-6g(x)frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}+g^2(x)frac{d^3left(g(x)right)}{dx^3}right]$



                      Relation with Faa' di Bruno coefficents:



                      The $A_n$ have also a combinatorial form, similar to the Faa' di Bruno coefficents (ref http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fa%C3%A0_di_Bruno).



                      An explication via an example (with for shortness
                      $g'=frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx}$, $g''=frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}$, etc.):



                      Let we want to find $A_4$.
                      The partitions of 4 are: $1+1+1+1, 1+1+2, 1+3, 4, 2+2$.
                      Now for each partition we can use the following pattern:



                      $1+1+1+1 leftrightarrow C_1g'g'g'g'=C_1left(g'right)^4$



                      $1+1+2+0 leftrightarrow C_2g'g'g''g=C_2gleft(g'right)^2g''$



                      $1+3+0+0 leftrightarrow C_3g'g'''gg=C_3left(gright)^2g'g'''$



                      $4+0+0+0 leftrightarrow C_4g''''ggg=C_4left(gright)^3g''''$



                      $2+2+0+0 leftrightarrow C_5g''g''gg=C_5left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$



                      with $C_i=(-1)^{(4-t)}frac{4!t!}{m_1!,m_2!,m_3!,cdots 1!^{m_1},2!^{m_2},3!^{m_3},cdots}$ (ref. closed-form of the Faà di Bruno coefficents)



                      where $t$ is the numers of partition items different of $0$, and $m_i$ is the numer of i.



                      We have $C_1=24$ (with $m_1=4, t=4$), $C_2=-36$ (with $m_1=2, m_2=1, t=3$), $C_3=8$ (with $m_1=1, m_3=1, t=2$), $C_4=-1$ (with $m_4=2, t=1$), $C_5=6$ (with $m_2=2,t=2$).



                      Finally $A_4$ is the sum of the formula found for each partition, i.e.



                      $A_4=24left(g'right)^4-36gleft(g'right)^2g''+8left(gright)^2g'g'''-left(gright)^3g''''+6left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$
















                        3












                        3








                        3





                        $begingroup$

                        The answer is:



                        $frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) = sum_{k=0}^n {(-1)^k tbinom{n}{k} frac{d^{n-k}left(f(x)right)}{dx^{n-k}}}frac{A_k}{g_{(x)}^{k+1}} $



                        where:



                        $A_0=1$



                        $A_n=nfrac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx} A_{n-1}-g(x)frac{dleft(A_{n-1}right)}{dx}$



                        for example let $n=3$:



                        $frac{d^3}{dx^3} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) =frac{1}{g(x)} frac{d^3left(f(x)right)}{dx^3}-frac{3}{g^2(x)}frac{d^2left(f(x)right)}{dx^2}left[frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right] + frac{3}{g^3(x)}frac{dleft(f(x)right)}{d{x}}left[2left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^2-g(x)frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}right]-frac{f(x)}{g^4(x)}left[6left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^3-6g(x)frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}+g^2(x)frac{d^3left(g(x)right)}{dx^3}right]$



                        Relation with Faa' di Bruno coefficents:



                        The $A_n$ have also a combinatorial form, similar to the Faa' di Bruno coefficents (ref http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fa%C3%A0_di_Bruno).



                        An explication via an example (with for shortness
                        $g'=frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx}$, $g''=frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}$, etc.):



                        Let we want to find $A_4$.
                        The partitions of 4 are: $1+1+1+1, 1+1+2, 1+3, 4, 2+2$.
                        Now for each partition we can use the following pattern:



                        $1+1+1+1 leftrightarrow C_1g'g'g'g'=C_1left(g'right)^4$



                        $1+1+2+0 leftrightarrow C_2g'g'g''g=C_2gleft(g'right)^2g''$



                        $1+3+0+0 leftrightarrow C_3g'g'''gg=C_3left(gright)^2g'g'''$



                        $4+0+0+0 leftrightarrow C_4g''''ggg=C_4left(gright)^3g''''$



                        $2+2+0+0 leftrightarrow C_5g''g''gg=C_5left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$



                        with $C_i=(-1)^{(4-t)}frac{4!t!}{m_1!,m_2!,m_3!,cdots 1!^{m_1},2!^{m_2},3!^{m_3},cdots}$ (ref. closed-form of the Faà di Bruno coefficents)



                        where $t$ is the numers of partition items different of $0$, and $m_i$ is the numer of i.



                        We have $C_1=24$ (with $m_1=4, t=4$), $C_2=-36$ (with $m_1=2, m_2=1, t=3$), $C_3=8$ (with $m_1=1, m_3=1, t=2$), $C_4=-1$ (with $m_4=2, t=1$), $C_5=6$ (with $m_2=2,t=2$).



                        Finally $A_4$ is the sum of the formula found for each partition, i.e.



                        $A_4=24left(g'right)^4-36gleft(g'right)^2g''+8left(gright)^2g'g'''-left(gright)^3g''''+6left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$



                        The answer is:



                        $frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) = sum_{k=0}^n {(-1)^k tbinom{n}{k} frac{d^{n-k}left(f(x)right)}{dx^{n-k}}}frac{A_k}{g_{(x)}^{k+1}} $



                        where:



                        $A_0=1$



                        $A_n=nfrac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx} A_{n-1}-g(x)frac{dleft(A_{n-1}right)}{dx}$



                        for example let $n=3$:



                        $frac{d^3}{dx^3} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ) =frac{1}{g(x)} frac{d^3left(f(x)right)}{dx^3}-frac{3}{g^2(x)}frac{d^2left(f(x)right)}{dx^2}left[frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right] + frac{3}{g^3(x)}frac{dleft(f(x)right)}{d{x}}left[2left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^2-g(x)frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}right]-frac{f(x)}{g^4(x)}left[6left(frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}right)^3-6g(x)frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{d{x}}frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}+g^2(x)frac{d^3left(g(x)right)}{dx^3}right]$



                        Relation with Faa' di Bruno coefficents:



                        The $A_n$ have also a combinatorial form, similar to the Faa' di Bruno coefficents (ref http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fa%C3%A0_di_Bruno).



                        An explication via an example (with for shortness
                        $g'=frac{dleft(g(x)right)}{dx}$, $g''=frac{d^2left(g(x)right)}{dx^2}$, etc.):



                        Let we want to find $A_4$.
                        The partitions of 4 are: $1+1+1+1, 1+1+2, 1+3, 4, 2+2$.
                        Now for each partition we can use the following pattern:



                        $1+1+1+1 leftrightarrow C_1g'g'g'g'=C_1left(g'right)^4$



                        $1+1+2+0 leftrightarrow C_2g'g'g''g=C_2gleft(g'right)^2g''$



                        $1+3+0+0 leftrightarrow C_3g'g'''gg=C_3left(gright)^2g'g'''$



                        $4+0+0+0 leftrightarrow C_4g''''ggg=C_4left(gright)^3g''''$



                        $2+2+0+0 leftrightarrow C_5g''g''gg=C_5left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$



                        with $C_i=(-1)^{(4-t)}frac{4!t!}{m_1!,m_2!,m_3!,cdots 1!^{m_1},2!^{m_2},3!^{m_3},cdots}$ (ref. closed-form of the Faà di Bruno coefficents)



                        where $t$ is the numers of partition items different of $0$, and $m_i$ is the numer of i.



                        We have $C_1=24$ (with $m_1=4, t=4$), $C_2=-36$ (with $m_1=2, m_2=1, t=3$), $C_3=8$ (with $m_1=1, m_3=1, t=2$), $C_4=-1$ (with $m_4=2, t=1$), $C_5=6$ (with $m_2=2,t=2$).



                        Finally $A_4$ is the sum of the formula found for each partition, i.e.



                        $A_4=24left(g'right)^4-36gleft(g'right)^2g''+8left(gright)^2g'g'''-left(gright)^3g''''+6left(gright)^2left(g''right)^2$







                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        edited Feb 15 '15 at 15:18

























                        answered Nov 29 '14 at 16:36









                        giuseppe.tavazzagiuseppe.tavazza

                        312




                        312























                            2












                            $begingroup$

                            As others have pointed out, the quotient rule is actually a form of a product rule. Just using Leibniz rule for getting higher order derivatives of product of a function-take a look here.



                            http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Leibniz_rule






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$


















                              2












                              $begingroup$

                              As others have pointed out, the quotient rule is actually a form of a product rule. Just using Leibniz rule for getting higher order derivatives of product of a function-take a look here.



                              http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Leibniz_rule






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$
















                                2












                                2








                                2





                                $begingroup$

                                As others have pointed out, the quotient rule is actually a form of a product rule. Just using Leibniz rule for getting higher order derivatives of product of a function-take a look here.



                                http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Leibniz_rule






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$



                                As others have pointed out, the quotient rule is actually a form of a product rule. Just using Leibniz rule for getting higher order derivatives of product of a function-take a look here.



                                http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Leibniz_rule







                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                answered Dec 27 '11 at 9:10









                                nb1nb1

                                1,1721017




                                1,1721017























                                    2












                                    $begingroup$

                                    I found a pdf online that had a result for a general formula for $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ). $$



                                    Although I cannot find the resource again (I am looking because it had a proof), one formula is
                                    $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} (f^{(n)}(x))-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!}.$$ Now don't attribute this to me, as I referenced from a source I am trying to find again. It, for me, is impractical and apply the product rule for $fcdot g^{-1}$ is a lot easier, but I think the general formula is pretty good to know.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$













                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Found the pdf, here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – user124862
                                      Feb 28 '14 at 1:52










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Your link doesn't work anymore...
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – draks ...
                                      Apr 11 '17 at 20:17










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Is the little $(j-1)$ in the superscript a power or a derivative? If it's a derivative, this formula is useless.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:43










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      I mean, it wouldn't be an explicit equation, just a recurrence relation (just missed the comment editing time).
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:50
















                                    2












                                    $begingroup$

                                    I found a pdf online that had a result for a general formula for $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ). $$



                                    Although I cannot find the resource again (I am looking because it had a proof), one formula is
                                    $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} (f^{(n)}(x))-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!}.$$ Now don't attribute this to me, as I referenced from a source I am trying to find again. It, for me, is impractical and apply the product rule for $fcdot g^{-1}$ is a lot easier, but I think the general formula is pretty good to know.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$













                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Found the pdf, here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – user124862
                                      Feb 28 '14 at 1:52










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Your link doesn't work anymore...
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – draks ...
                                      Apr 11 '17 at 20:17










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Is the little $(j-1)$ in the superscript a power or a derivative? If it's a derivative, this formula is useless.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:43










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      I mean, it wouldn't be an explicit equation, just a recurrence relation (just missed the comment editing time).
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:50














                                    2












                                    2








                                    2





                                    $begingroup$

                                    I found a pdf online that had a result for a general formula for $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ). $$



                                    Although I cannot find the resource again (I am looking because it had a proof), one formula is
                                    $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} (f^{(n)}(x))-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!}.$$ Now don't attribute this to me, as I referenced from a source I am trying to find again. It, for me, is impractical and apply the product rule for $fcdot g^{-1}$ is a lot easier, but I think the general formula is pretty good to know.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$



                                    I found a pdf online that had a result for a general formula for $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right ). $$



                                    Although I cannot find the resource again (I am looking because it had a proof), one formula is
                                    $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} (f^{(n)}(x))-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!}.$$ Now don't attribute this to me, as I referenced from a source I am trying to find again. It, for me, is impractical and apply the product rule for $fcdot g^{-1}$ is a lot easier, but I think the general formula is pretty good to know.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    edited Apr 28 '14 at 21:11









                                    stopple

                                    1,504817




                                    1,504817










                                    answered Feb 28 '14 at 1:47







                                    user124862



















                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Found the pdf, here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – user124862
                                      Feb 28 '14 at 1:52










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Your link doesn't work anymore...
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – draks ...
                                      Apr 11 '17 at 20:17










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Is the little $(j-1)$ in the superscript a power or a derivative? If it's a derivative, this formula is useless.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:43










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      I mean, it wouldn't be an explicit equation, just a recurrence relation (just missed the comment editing time).
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:50


















                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Found the pdf, here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – user124862
                                      Feb 28 '14 at 1:52










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Your link doesn't work anymore...
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – draks ...
                                      Apr 11 '17 at 20:17










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Is the little $(j-1)$ in the superscript a power or a derivative? If it's a derivative, this formula is useless.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:43










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      I mean, it wouldn't be an explicit equation, just a recurrence relation (just missed the comment editing time).
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Feb 28 at 15:50
















                                    $begingroup$
                                    Found the pdf, here.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user124862
                                    Feb 28 '14 at 1:52




                                    $begingroup$
                                    Found the pdf, here.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user124862
                                    Feb 28 '14 at 1:52












                                    $begingroup$
                                    Your link doesn't work anymore...
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – draks ...
                                    Apr 11 '17 at 20:17




                                    $begingroup$
                                    Your link doesn't work anymore...
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – draks ...
                                    Apr 11 '17 at 20:17












                                    $begingroup$
                                    Is the little $(j-1)$ in the superscript a power or a derivative? If it's a derivative, this formula is useless.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Feb 28 at 15:43




                                    $begingroup$
                                    Is the little $(j-1)$ in the superscript a power or a derivative? If it's a derivative, this formula is useless.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Feb 28 at 15:43












                                    $begingroup$
                                    I mean, it wouldn't be an explicit equation, just a recurrence relation (just missed the comment editing time).
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Feb 28 at 15:50




                                    $begingroup$
                                    I mean, it wouldn't be an explicit equation, just a recurrence relation (just missed the comment editing time).
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Feb 28 at 15:50











                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Quotient Rule is actually Product Rule.



                                    $D(u/v) = D(uw)$ where $w = 1/v$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$













                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Please help me with the notation.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Pratik Deoghare
                                      Sep 24 '10 at 5:02
















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Quotient Rule is actually Product Rule.



                                    $D(u/v) = D(uw)$ where $w = 1/v$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$













                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Please help me with the notation.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Pratik Deoghare
                                      Sep 24 '10 at 5:02














                                    1












                                    1








                                    1





                                    $begingroup$

                                    Quotient Rule is actually Product Rule.



                                    $D(u/v) = D(uw)$ where $w = 1/v$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    Quotient Rule is actually Product Rule.



                                    $D(u/v) = D(uw)$ where $w = 1/v$.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Sep 24 '10 at 5:00









                                    Pratik DeogharePratik Deoghare

                                    5,93842438




                                    5,93842438












                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Please help me with the notation.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Pratik Deoghare
                                      Sep 24 '10 at 5:02


















                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Please help me with the notation.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Pratik Deoghare
                                      Sep 24 '10 at 5:02
















                                    $begingroup$
                                    Please help me with the notation.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Pratik Deoghare
                                    Sep 24 '10 at 5:02




                                    $begingroup$
                                    Please help me with the notation.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Pratik Deoghare
                                    Sep 24 '10 at 5:02











                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    I'm checking @Mohammad Al Jamal's formula with SymPy, and I can verify it's true (barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term) for up to $n = 16$, at least (it gets really slow after that).




                                    import sympy as sp

                                    k = sp.Symbol('k'); x = sp.Symbol('x'); f = sp.Function('f'); g = sp.Function('g')

                                    n = 0
                                    while True:
                                    fgn = sp.diff(f(x) / g(x), x, n)
                                    guess = sp.summation((-1) ** k * sp.binomial(n + 1, k + 1)
                                    * sp.diff(f(x) * (g(x)) ** k, x, n)/(g(x) ** (k + 1)), (k, 0, n))
                                    print("{} for n = {}".format(sp.expand(guess - fgn) == 0, n))
                                    n += 1


                                    This is quite surprising to me -- I didn't expect there to be such a simple and straightforward expression for $(f(x)/g(x))^{(n)}$, and haven't seen his formula anywhere before. I tried some inductive proofs, but I haven't succeeded in proving it yet.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$













                                    • $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48
















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    I'm checking @Mohammad Al Jamal's formula with SymPy, and I can verify it's true (barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term) for up to $n = 16$, at least (it gets really slow after that).




                                    import sympy as sp

                                    k = sp.Symbol('k'); x = sp.Symbol('x'); f = sp.Function('f'); g = sp.Function('g')

                                    n = 0
                                    while True:
                                    fgn = sp.diff(f(x) / g(x), x, n)
                                    guess = sp.summation((-1) ** k * sp.binomial(n + 1, k + 1)
                                    * sp.diff(f(x) * (g(x)) ** k, x, n)/(g(x) ** (k + 1)), (k, 0, n))
                                    print("{} for n = {}".format(sp.expand(guess - fgn) == 0, n))
                                    n += 1


                                    This is quite surprising to me -- I didn't expect there to be such a simple and straightforward expression for $(f(x)/g(x))^{(n)}$, and haven't seen his formula anywhere before. I tried some inductive proofs, but I haven't succeeded in proving it yet.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$













                                    • $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48














                                    1












                                    1








                                    1





                                    $begingroup$

                                    I'm checking @Mohammad Al Jamal's formula with SymPy, and I can verify it's true (barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term) for up to $n = 16$, at least (it gets really slow after that).




                                    import sympy as sp

                                    k = sp.Symbol('k'); x = sp.Symbol('x'); f = sp.Function('f'); g = sp.Function('g')

                                    n = 0
                                    while True:
                                    fgn = sp.diff(f(x) / g(x), x, n)
                                    guess = sp.summation((-1) ** k * sp.binomial(n + 1, k + 1)
                                    * sp.diff(f(x) * (g(x)) ** k, x, n)/(g(x) ** (k + 1)), (k, 0, n))
                                    print("{} for n = {}".format(sp.expand(guess - fgn) == 0, n))
                                    n += 1


                                    This is quite surprising to me -- I didn't expect there to be such a simple and straightforward expression for $(f(x)/g(x))^{(n)}$, and haven't seen his formula anywhere before. I tried some inductive proofs, but I haven't succeeded in proving it yet.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    I'm checking @Mohammad Al Jamal's formula with SymPy, and I can verify it's true (barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term) for up to $n = 16$, at least (it gets really slow after that).




                                    import sympy as sp

                                    k = sp.Symbol('k'); x = sp.Symbol('x'); f = sp.Function('f'); g = sp.Function('g')

                                    n = 0
                                    while True:
                                    fgn = sp.diff(f(x) / g(x), x, n)
                                    guess = sp.summation((-1) ** k * sp.binomial(n + 1, k + 1)
                                    * sp.diff(f(x) * (g(x)) ** k, x, n)/(g(x) ** (k + 1)), (k, 0, n))
                                    print("{} for n = {}".format(sp.expand(guess - fgn) == 0, n))
                                    n += 1


                                    This is quite surprising to me -- I didn't expect there to be such a simple and straightforward expression for $(f(x)/g(x))^{(n)}$, and haven't seen his formula anywhere before. I tried some inductive proofs, but I haven't succeeded in proving it yet.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Mar 2 at 0:15









                                    Abhimanyu Pallavi SudhirAbhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir

                                    942719




                                    942719












                                    • $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48


















                                    • $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48
















                                    $begingroup$
                                    you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                    Mar 2 at 12:48




                                    $begingroup$
                                    you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                    Mar 2 at 12:48











                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    i state this without proof, for the proof is tedious and lengthy.
                                    $$left(frac{f(x)}{g(x)}right)^{(n)}=frac{1}{g(x)}sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{k}binom{n+1}{k+1}frac{left(f(x)g^{k}(x)right)^{(n)}}{g^{k}(x)}
                                    $$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$









                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      What the heck, this seems to be correct (testing upto $n = 2$), barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term. I wasn't expecting there to be such a simple expression. Any hints about how to go about proving this (how'd you find it, anyway)?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 1 at 11:26








                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Did you find it?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 4 at 22:00










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      a combination of Faa di bruno's formula, and induction.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 7 at 8:29










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Ah, wait -- it seems it can be proven from the expression in giuseppe's answer.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 10 at 15:32
















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    i state this without proof, for the proof is tedious and lengthy.
                                    $$left(frac{f(x)}{g(x)}right)^{(n)}=frac{1}{g(x)}sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{k}binom{n+1}{k+1}frac{left(f(x)g^{k}(x)right)^{(n)}}{g^{k}(x)}
                                    $$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$









                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      What the heck, this seems to be correct (testing upto $n = 2$), barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term. I wasn't expecting there to be such a simple expression. Any hints about how to go about proving this (how'd you find it, anyway)?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 1 at 11:26








                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Did you find it?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 4 at 22:00










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      a combination of Faa di bruno's formula, and induction.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 7 at 8:29










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Ah, wait -- it seems it can be proven from the expression in giuseppe's answer.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 10 at 15:32














                                    1












                                    1








                                    1





                                    $begingroup$

                                    i state this without proof, for the proof is tedious and lengthy.
                                    $$left(frac{f(x)}{g(x)}right)^{(n)}=frac{1}{g(x)}sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{k}binom{n+1}{k+1}frac{left(f(x)g^{k}(x)right)^{(n)}}{g^{k}(x)}
                                    $$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$



                                    i state this without proof, for the proof is tedious and lengthy.
                                    $$left(frac{f(x)}{g(x)}right)^{(n)}=frac{1}{g(x)}sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^{k}binom{n+1}{k+1}frac{left(f(x)g^{k}(x)right)^{(n)}}{g^{k}(x)}
                                    $$







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    edited Mar 2 at 12:46

























                                    answered Feb 27 at 11:59









                                    Mohammad Al JamalMohammad Al Jamal

                                    154321




                                    154321








                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      What the heck, this seems to be correct (testing upto $n = 2$), barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term. I wasn't expecting there to be such a simple expression. Any hints about how to go about proving this (how'd you find it, anyway)?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 1 at 11:26








                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Did you find it?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 4 at 22:00










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      a combination of Faa di bruno's formula, and induction.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 7 at 8:29










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Ah, wait -- it seems it can be proven from the expression in giuseppe's answer.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 10 at 15:32














                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      What the heck, this seems to be correct (testing upto $n = 2$), barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term. I wasn't expecting there to be such a simple expression. Any hints about how to go about proving this (how'd you find it, anyway)?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 1 at 11:26








                                    • 1




                                      $begingroup$
                                      you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 2 at 12:48










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Did you find it?
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 4 at 22:00










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      a combination of Faa di bruno's formula, and induction.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                      Mar 7 at 8:29










                                    • $begingroup$
                                      Ah, wait -- it seems it can be proven from the expression in giuseppe's answer.
                                      $endgroup$
                                      – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                      Mar 10 at 15:32








                                    1




                                    1




                                    $begingroup$
                                    What the heck, this seems to be correct (testing upto $n = 2$), barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term. I wasn't expecting there to be such a simple expression. Any hints about how to go about proving this (how'd you find it, anyway)?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Mar 1 at 11:26






                                    $begingroup$
                                    What the heck, this seems to be correct (testing upto $n = 2$), barring a missing $(-1)^k$ term. I wasn't expecting there to be such a simple expression. Any hints about how to go about proving this (how'd you find it, anyway)?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Mar 1 at 11:26






                                    1




                                    1




                                    $begingroup$
                                    you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                    Mar 2 at 12:48




                                    $begingroup$
                                    you're correct. there should be a $(-1)^{k}$ factor. i have corrected my answer accordingly. i have the proof somewhere. i will look for it and post it here.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                    Mar 2 at 12:48












                                    $begingroup$
                                    Did you find it?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Mar 4 at 22:00




                                    $begingroup$
                                    Did you find it?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Mar 4 at 22:00












                                    $begingroup$
                                    a combination of Faa di bruno's formula, and induction.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                    Mar 7 at 8:29




                                    $begingroup$
                                    a combination of Faa di bruno's formula, and induction.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Mohammad Al Jamal
                                    Mar 7 at 8:29












                                    $begingroup$
                                    Ah, wait -- it seems it can be proven from the expression in giuseppe's answer.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Mar 10 at 15:32




                                    $begingroup$
                                    Ah, wait -- it seems it can be proven from the expression in giuseppe's answer.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
                                    Mar 10 at 15:32











                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    The answer by Stopple should be corrected as follows.
                                    $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} left( f^{(n)}(x)-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!} right). $$
                                    If we let $h(x)=f(x)/g(x)$, above can be also written as follows suppressing the independent variable $x$
                                    $$ h^{(n)} = frac{1}{g} left( f^{(n)} -sum_{j=1}^{n} binom{n}{j} h^{(n-j)}g^{(j)} right).$$



                                    The proof is straightforward by induction.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$


















                                      1












                                      $begingroup$

                                      The answer by Stopple should be corrected as follows.
                                      $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} left( f^{(n)}(x)-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!} right). $$
                                      If we let $h(x)=f(x)/g(x)$, above can be also written as follows suppressing the independent variable $x$
                                      $$ h^{(n)} = frac{1}{g} left( f^{(n)} -sum_{j=1}^{n} binom{n}{j} h^{(n-j)}g^{(j)} right).$$



                                      The proof is straightforward by induction.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer











                                      $endgroup$
















                                        1












                                        1








                                        1





                                        $begingroup$

                                        The answer by Stopple should be corrected as follows.
                                        $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} left( f^{(n)}(x)-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!} right). $$
                                        If we let $h(x)=f(x)/g(x)$, above can be also written as follows suppressing the independent variable $x$
                                        $$ h^{(n)} = frac{1}{g} left( f^{(n)} -sum_{j=1}^{n} binom{n}{j} h^{(n-j)}g^{(j)} right).$$



                                        The proof is straightforward by induction.






                                        share|cite|improve this answer











                                        $endgroup$



                                        The answer by Stopple should be corrected as follows.
                                        $$frac{d^n}{dx^n} left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right )=frac{1}{g(x)} left( f^{(n)}(x)-n! sum_{j=1}^n frac{g^{(n+1-j)}(x)}{(n+1-j!)} frac{ left (frac{f(x)}{g(x)} right)^{{{(j-1)}}}} {(j-1)!} right). $$
                                        If we let $h(x)=f(x)/g(x)$, above can be also written as follows suppressing the independent variable $x$
                                        $$ h^{(n)} = frac{1}{g} left( f^{(n)} -sum_{j=1}^{n} binom{n}{j} h^{(n-j)}g^{(j)} right).$$



                                        The proof is straightforward by induction.







                                        share|cite|improve this answer














                                        share|cite|improve this answer



                                        share|cite|improve this answer








                                        edited Mar 14 at 22:53

























                                        answered Mar 12 at 11:36









                                        AjouresmanAjouresman

                                        112




                                        112























                                            0












                                            $begingroup$

                                            The aim is to get a non-recursive expression in dependence of the higher derivatives of the functions in the numerator and denominator. The $n$-th derivative of the reciprocal of an arbitrary function doesn't have a simple expression. It has to be treated as composition of functions and needs Faà di Bruno's formula therefore.



                                            Applying General Leibniz rule and Faà di Bruno's formula, one gets the following Higher Quotient Rule:



                                            $$frac{d^n}{dx^n}frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=sum_{i=0}^{n}{nchoose i}f^{(i)}(x)sum_{k=0}^{n-i}(-1)^{k}k!g(x)^{-k-1}B_{n-i,k}(g(x)).$$



                                            $B_{n,k}(g(x))=B_{n,k}(g^{(1)}(x),g^{(2)}(x),...,g^{(n-k+1)}(x))$ is the partial exponential Bell polynomial of the second kind:



                                            $$B_{n,k}(g(x))=sum_{sum_{t=1}^{n}tk_{t}=natopsum_{t=1}^{n}k_{t}=k}frac{n!}{prod_{i=1}^{n}i!^{k_{i}}k_{i}!}prod_{i=1}^{n}{g^{(i)}(x)}^{k_{i}}.$$



                                            In 2012, I wrote a still unpublished article "On partial Bell polynomials for the higher derivatives of composed functions".






                                            share|cite|improve this answer











                                            $endgroup$


















                                              0












                                              $begingroup$

                                              The aim is to get a non-recursive expression in dependence of the higher derivatives of the functions in the numerator and denominator. The $n$-th derivative of the reciprocal of an arbitrary function doesn't have a simple expression. It has to be treated as composition of functions and needs Faà di Bruno's formula therefore.



                                              Applying General Leibniz rule and Faà di Bruno's formula, one gets the following Higher Quotient Rule:



                                              $$frac{d^n}{dx^n}frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=sum_{i=0}^{n}{nchoose i}f^{(i)}(x)sum_{k=0}^{n-i}(-1)^{k}k!g(x)^{-k-1}B_{n-i,k}(g(x)).$$



                                              $B_{n,k}(g(x))=B_{n,k}(g^{(1)}(x),g^{(2)}(x),...,g^{(n-k+1)}(x))$ is the partial exponential Bell polynomial of the second kind:



                                              $$B_{n,k}(g(x))=sum_{sum_{t=1}^{n}tk_{t}=natopsum_{t=1}^{n}k_{t}=k}frac{n!}{prod_{i=1}^{n}i!^{k_{i}}k_{i}!}prod_{i=1}^{n}{g^{(i)}(x)}^{k_{i}}.$$



                                              In 2012, I wrote a still unpublished article "On partial Bell polynomials for the higher derivatives of composed functions".






                                              share|cite|improve this answer











                                              $endgroup$
















                                                0












                                                0








                                                0





                                                $begingroup$

                                                The aim is to get a non-recursive expression in dependence of the higher derivatives of the functions in the numerator and denominator. The $n$-th derivative of the reciprocal of an arbitrary function doesn't have a simple expression. It has to be treated as composition of functions and needs Faà di Bruno's formula therefore.



                                                Applying General Leibniz rule and Faà di Bruno's formula, one gets the following Higher Quotient Rule:



                                                $$frac{d^n}{dx^n}frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=sum_{i=0}^{n}{nchoose i}f^{(i)}(x)sum_{k=0}^{n-i}(-1)^{k}k!g(x)^{-k-1}B_{n-i,k}(g(x)).$$



                                                $B_{n,k}(g(x))=B_{n,k}(g^{(1)}(x),g^{(2)}(x),...,g^{(n-k+1)}(x))$ is the partial exponential Bell polynomial of the second kind:



                                                $$B_{n,k}(g(x))=sum_{sum_{t=1}^{n}tk_{t}=natopsum_{t=1}^{n}k_{t}=k}frac{n!}{prod_{i=1}^{n}i!^{k_{i}}k_{i}!}prod_{i=1}^{n}{g^{(i)}(x)}^{k_{i}}.$$



                                                In 2012, I wrote a still unpublished article "On partial Bell polynomials for the higher derivatives of composed functions".






                                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                                $endgroup$



                                                The aim is to get a non-recursive expression in dependence of the higher derivatives of the functions in the numerator and denominator. The $n$-th derivative of the reciprocal of an arbitrary function doesn't have a simple expression. It has to be treated as composition of functions and needs Faà di Bruno's formula therefore.



                                                Applying General Leibniz rule and Faà di Bruno's formula, one gets the following Higher Quotient Rule:



                                                $$frac{d^n}{dx^n}frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=sum_{i=0}^{n}{nchoose i}f^{(i)}(x)sum_{k=0}^{n-i}(-1)^{k}k!g(x)^{-k-1}B_{n-i,k}(g(x)).$$



                                                $B_{n,k}(g(x))=B_{n,k}(g^{(1)}(x),g^{(2)}(x),...,g^{(n-k+1)}(x))$ is the partial exponential Bell polynomial of the second kind:



                                                $$B_{n,k}(g(x))=sum_{sum_{t=1}^{n}tk_{t}=natopsum_{t=1}^{n}k_{t}=k}frac{n!}{prod_{i=1}^{n}i!^{k_{i}}k_{i}!}prod_{i=1}^{n}{g^{(i)}(x)}^{k_{i}}.$$



                                                In 2012, I wrote a still unpublished article "On partial Bell polynomials for the higher derivatives of composed functions".







                                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                                edited 2 days ago

























                                                answered Mar 12 at 20:02









                                                IV_IV_

                                                1,521525




                                                1,521525






























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