Find the values of a>0 for which the improper integral $int_{0}^{infty}frac{sin x}{x^{a}} $ converges ....

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Find the values of a>0 for which the improper integral $int_{0}^{infty}frac{sin x}{x^{a}} $ converges . [duplicate]


Convergence $I=int_0^infty frac{sin x}{x^s}dx$Improper Integral:$int_{0}^{+infty}frac{sin x}{x+sin x}dx$Improper integral $sin(x)/x $ converges absolutely, conditionaly or diverges?For which values is this improper integral convergent?Does the improper integral $int_{0}^{infty}sin(x^2);mathrm dx$ converge?Improper integral: $int_0^infty frac{sin^4x}{x^2}dx$Determining for which positive values of $p$ the improper integral $int_1^{infty}frac{dx}{e^{px} ln{x}}$ convergesImproper integral - checking convergence of $int_{1}^{infty} x^2 sin(x^4) dx$Can't solve Improper Integral $int_{0}^{infty} frac{sqrt{x}sin(x)}{1+x^2} dx$Find all the values of $alpha$ and $beta$ for which the following integral convergesFor what values of ''$a$'' , does this Improper Integral converges?













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  • Convergence $I=int_0^infty frac{sin x}{x^s}dx$ [duplicate]

    5 answers




Find the values of a>0 for which the improper integral $int_{0}^{infty}frac{sin x}{x^{a}} $ converges .
Do I have to expand integrand using series expansion??










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marked as duplicate by mrtaurho, uniquesolution, John Omielan, StubbornAtom, Crostul Mar 18 at 20:33


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Not necessarily.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 18 at 13:50










  • $begingroup$
    Tell me another way !!
    $endgroup$
    – sejy
    Mar 18 at 13:55






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @sejy you shouldn't use this tone against people that you want help from for free
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Mar 18 at 14:07










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/793595/…
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Mar 18 at 14:29
















-4












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Convergence $I=int_0^infty frac{sin x}{x^s}dx$ [duplicate]

    5 answers




Find the values of a>0 for which the improper integral $int_{0}^{infty}frac{sin x}{x^{a}} $ converges .
Do I have to expand integrand using series expansion??










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by mrtaurho, uniquesolution, John Omielan, StubbornAtom, Crostul Mar 18 at 20:33


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Not necessarily.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 18 at 13:50










  • $begingroup$
    Tell me another way !!
    $endgroup$
    – sejy
    Mar 18 at 13:55






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @sejy you shouldn't use this tone against people that you want help from for free
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Mar 18 at 14:07










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/793595/…
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Mar 18 at 14:29














-4












-4








-4





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Convergence $I=int_0^infty frac{sin x}{x^s}dx$ [duplicate]

    5 answers




Find the values of a>0 for which the improper integral $int_{0}^{infty}frac{sin x}{x^{a}} $ converges .
Do I have to expand integrand using series expansion??










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Convergence $I=int_0^infty frac{sin x}{x^s}dx$ [duplicate]

    5 answers




Find the values of a>0 for which the improper integral $int_{0}^{infty}frac{sin x}{x^{a}} $ converges .
Do I have to expand integrand using series expansion??





This question already has an answer here:




  • Convergence $I=int_0^infty frac{sin x}{x^s}dx$ [duplicate]

    5 answers








improper-integrals






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edited Mar 18 at 13:54









Bernard

124k741118




124k741118










asked Mar 18 at 13:47









sejysejy

1589




1589




marked as duplicate by mrtaurho, uniquesolution, John Omielan, StubbornAtom, Crostul Mar 18 at 20:33


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by mrtaurho, uniquesolution, John Omielan, StubbornAtom, Crostul Mar 18 at 20:33


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    Not necessarily.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 18 at 13:50










  • $begingroup$
    Tell me another way !!
    $endgroup$
    – sejy
    Mar 18 at 13:55






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @sejy you shouldn't use this tone against people that you want help from for free
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Mar 18 at 14:07










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/793595/…
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Mar 18 at 14:29


















  • $begingroup$
    Not necessarily.
    $endgroup$
    – uniquesolution
    Mar 18 at 13:50










  • $begingroup$
    Tell me another way !!
    $endgroup$
    – sejy
    Mar 18 at 13:55






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @sejy you shouldn't use this tone against people that you want help from for free
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Mar 18 at 14:07










  • $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/793595/…
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    Mar 18 at 14:29
















$begingroup$
Not necessarily.
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 18 at 13:50




$begingroup$
Not necessarily.
$endgroup$
– uniquesolution
Mar 18 at 13:50












$begingroup$
Tell me another way !!
$endgroup$
– sejy
Mar 18 at 13:55




$begingroup$
Tell me another way !!
$endgroup$
– sejy
Mar 18 at 13:55




2




2




$begingroup$
@sejy you shouldn't use this tone against people that you want help from for free
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Mar 18 at 14:07




$begingroup$
@sejy you shouldn't use this tone against people that you want help from for free
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Mar 18 at 14:07












$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/793595/…
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Mar 18 at 14:29




$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/793595/…
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Mar 18 at 14:29










2 Answers
2






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For $a ge 2$ the singularity at $0$ is non-integrable. For $1 < a < 2$ it's absolutely integrable both at $0$ and at $infty$. For $0 < a le 1$ the series $sum_{n=1}^infty int_{npi}^{(n+1)pi} frac{sin(x)}{x^a}; dx$ is an alternating series.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    0












    $begingroup$

    We know that $-1lesin(x)le 1$ and so we can approximate the integral with:
    $$int_0^inftyfrac{sin(x)}{x^a}dxleint_0^inftyfrac{1}{x^a}$$
    and this integral is convergent for $a>1$ so this narrows our region down to somewhere in $0<a<1$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      It converges also for $alpha=1$
      $endgroup$
      – HAMIDINE SOUMARE
      Mar 18 at 14:16








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @ Henry Lee You should better consider absolute values in your inequalitiy: $| int_0^infty frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha},dx | le int_0^infty |frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha}|,dxle int_0^infty frac{1}{x^alpha},dx$
      $endgroup$
      – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
      Mar 18 at 14:50








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      For general $alpha$ the integral defines the function $cos left(frac{pi alpha}{2}right) Gamma (1-alpha)$ by analytic continuation.
      $endgroup$
      – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
      Mar 18 at 14:53




















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    For $a ge 2$ the singularity at $0$ is non-integrable. For $1 < a < 2$ it's absolutely integrable both at $0$ and at $infty$. For $0 < a le 1$ the series $sum_{n=1}^infty int_{npi}^{(n+1)pi} frac{sin(x)}{x^a}; dx$ is an alternating series.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      For $a ge 2$ the singularity at $0$ is non-integrable. For $1 < a < 2$ it's absolutely integrable both at $0$ and at $infty$. For $0 < a le 1$ the series $sum_{n=1}^infty int_{npi}^{(n+1)pi} frac{sin(x)}{x^a}; dx$ is an alternating series.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        For $a ge 2$ the singularity at $0$ is non-integrable. For $1 < a < 2$ it's absolutely integrable both at $0$ and at $infty$. For $0 < a le 1$ the series $sum_{n=1}^infty int_{npi}^{(n+1)pi} frac{sin(x)}{x^a}; dx$ is an alternating series.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        For $a ge 2$ the singularity at $0$ is non-integrable. For $1 < a < 2$ it's absolutely integrable both at $0$ and at $infty$. For $0 < a le 1$ the series $sum_{n=1}^infty int_{npi}^{(n+1)pi} frac{sin(x)}{x^a}; dx$ is an alternating series.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 18 at 14:13









        Robert IsraelRobert Israel

        330k23219473




        330k23219473























            0












            $begingroup$

            We know that $-1lesin(x)le 1$ and so we can approximate the integral with:
            $$int_0^inftyfrac{sin(x)}{x^a}dxleint_0^inftyfrac{1}{x^a}$$
            and this integral is convergent for $a>1$ so this narrows our region down to somewhere in $0<a<1$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It converges also for $alpha=1$
              $endgroup$
              – HAMIDINE SOUMARE
              Mar 18 at 14:16








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @ Henry Lee You should better consider absolute values in your inequalitiy: $| int_0^infty frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha},dx | le int_0^infty |frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha}|,dxle int_0^infty frac{1}{x^alpha},dx$
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:50








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              For general $alpha$ the integral defines the function $cos left(frac{pi alpha}{2}right) Gamma (1-alpha)$ by analytic continuation.
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:53


















            0












            $begingroup$

            We know that $-1lesin(x)le 1$ and so we can approximate the integral with:
            $$int_0^inftyfrac{sin(x)}{x^a}dxleint_0^inftyfrac{1}{x^a}$$
            and this integral is convergent for $a>1$ so this narrows our region down to somewhere in $0<a<1$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It converges also for $alpha=1$
              $endgroup$
              – HAMIDINE SOUMARE
              Mar 18 at 14:16








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @ Henry Lee You should better consider absolute values in your inequalitiy: $| int_0^infty frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha},dx | le int_0^infty |frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha}|,dxle int_0^infty frac{1}{x^alpha},dx$
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:50








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              For general $alpha$ the integral defines the function $cos left(frac{pi alpha}{2}right) Gamma (1-alpha)$ by analytic continuation.
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:53
















            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            We know that $-1lesin(x)le 1$ and so we can approximate the integral with:
            $$int_0^inftyfrac{sin(x)}{x^a}dxleint_0^inftyfrac{1}{x^a}$$
            and this integral is convergent for $a>1$ so this narrows our region down to somewhere in $0<a<1$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            We know that $-1lesin(x)le 1$ and so we can approximate the integral with:
            $$int_0^inftyfrac{sin(x)}{x^a}dxleint_0^inftyfrac{1}{x^a}$$
            and this integral is convergent for $a>1$ so this narrows our region down to somewhere in $0<a<1$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 18 at 14:11









            Henry LeeHenry Lee

            2,189319




            2,189319








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It converges also for $alpha=1$
              $endgroup$
              – HAMIDINE SOUMARE
              Mar 18 at 14:16








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @ Henry Lee You should better consider absolute values in your inequalitiy: $| int_0^infty frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha},dx | le int_0^infty |frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha}|,dxle int_0^infty frac{1}{x^alpha},dx$
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:50








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              For general $alpha$ the integral defines the function $cos left(frac{pi alpha}{2}right) Gamma (1-alpha)$ by analytic continuation.
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:53
















            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It converges also for $alpha=1$
              $endgroup$
              – HAMIDINE SOUMARE
              Mar 18 at 14:16








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @ Henry Lee You should better consider absolute values in your inequalitiy: $| int_0^infty frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha},dx | le int_0^infty |frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha}|,dxle int_0^infty frac{1}{x^alpha},dx$
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:50








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              For general $alpha$ the integral defines the function $cos left(frac{pi alpha}{2}right) Gamma (1-alpha)$ by analytic continuation.
              $endgroup$
              – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
              Mar 18 at 14:53










            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            It converges also for $alpha=1$
            $endgroup$
            – HAMIDINE SOUMARE
            Mar 18 at 14:16






            $begingroup$
            It converges also for $alpha=1$
            $endgroup$
            – HAMIDINE SOUMARE
            Mar 18 at 14:16






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @ Henry Lee You should better consider absolute values in your inequalitiy: $| int_0^infty frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha},dx | le int_0^infty |frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha}|,dxle int_0^infty frac{1}{x^alpha},dx$
            $endgroup$
            – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
            Mar 18 at 14:50






            $begingroup$
            @ Henry Lee You should better consider absolute values in your inequalitiy: $| int_0^infty frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha},dx | le int_0^infty |frac{sin(x)}{x^alpha}|,dxle int_0^infty frac{1}{x^alpha},dx$
            $endgroup$
            – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
            Mar 18 at 14:50






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            For general $alpha$ the integral defines the function $cos left(frac{pi alpha}{2}right) Gamma (1-alpha)$ by analytic continuation.
            $endgroup$
            – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
            Mar 18 at 14:53






            $begingroup$
            For general $alpha$ the integral defines the function $cos left(frac{pi alpha}{2}right) Gamma (1-alpha)$ by analytic continuation.
            $endgroup$
            – Dr. Wolfgang Hintze
            Mar 18 at 14:53





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