Let $x in X$. Show that the subset ${x} subset X$ is closed with respect to $tau(d)$Show that the infinite...

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Let $x in X$. Show that the subset ${x} subset X$ is closed with respect to $tau(d)$


Show that the infinite intersection of nested non-empty closed subsets of a compact space is not emptyIntersection of topologiesIt is the power set of $Bbb R$ a topology of $Bbb R$?Let $X$ be an infinite set. Show that $tau={{emptyset}}cup{A:A^ctext{ is finite}}$ is a topology on $X$.Prove that an uncountable space with the countable-closed topology satisfies the countable chain condition.Show that $tau$ is a TopologyLet X a set not empty and (X,d) a metric space, prove the intersection of a family of closed sets are closed.$Ainoverline{tau}iffforall ain A-E,exists Bintau,ain Bsubset A$ defines a topologyWhat is the standard topology of real line? Why is $(0,1)$ called open but $[0,1]$ not open on this topology?show that the finite intersection of open sets is non empty. for the cocountable Topology.













0












$begingroup$


Let $x in X$. Show that the subset ${x} subset X$ is closed with respect to $tau(d)$



To solve this problem I have looked at properties of closed sets:



$a)$ The empty set $emptyset$ and the whole space $X$ are closed.



$b)$ If $A subset X$ and $B subset X$ are closed, so is their union $A
cup B$
.



$c)$ Let $I$ be a set and let $(A_i)_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then their intersection $bigcap_{i in I} A_i$ is closed as well.



To show that the empty set is closed, we have to see that $X$ $emptyset$ is open, and $X = X$ $emptyset$ is open in any topology by definition. Likewise, $X$ $X = emptyset$ is open, hence $X$ is closed.



Not sure how to answer $a)$ and $b)$



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is $tau(d)$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – TheSilverDoe
    Mar 19 at 15:56










  • $begingroup$
    You'll need additional restrictions on the topology. For instance, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the topology ${ varnothing, mathbb{R}}$, then singletons ${x}$ will not be closed. Is $X$ supposed to be either $T_1$ or Hausdorff?
    $endgroup$
    – rolandcyp
    Mar 19 at 15:57


















0












$begingroup$


Let $x in X$. Show that the subset ${x} subset X$ is closed with respect to $tau(d)$



To solve this problem I have looked at properties of closed sets:



$a)$ The empty set $emptyset$ and the whole space $X$ are closed.



$b)$ If $A subset X$ and $B subset X$ are closed, so is their union $A
cup B$
.



$c)$ Let $I$ be a set and let $(A_i)_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then their intersection $bigcap_{i in I} A_i$ is closed as well.



To show that the empty set is closed, we have to see that $X$ $emptyset$ is open, and $X = X$ $emptyset$ is open in any topology by definition. Likewise, $X$ $X = emptyset$ is open, hence $X$ is closed.



Not sure how to answer $a)$ and $b)$



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is $tau(d)$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – TheSilverDoe
    Mar 19 at 15:56










  • $begingroup$
    You'll need additional restrictions on the topology. For instance, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the topology ${ varnothing, mathbb{R}}$, then singletons ${x}$ will not be closed. Is $X$ supposed to be either $T_1$ or Hausdorff?
    $endgroup$
    – rolandcyp
    Mar 19 at 15:57
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $x in X$. Show that the subset ${x} subset X$ is closed with respect to $tau(d)$



To solve this problem I have looked at properties of closed sets:



$a)$ The empty set $emptyset$ and the whole space $X$ are closed.



$b)$ If $A subset X$ and $B subset X$ are closed, so is their union $A
cup B$
.



$c)$ Let $I$ be a set and let $(A_i)_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then their intersection $bigcap_{i in I} A_i$ is closed as well.



To show that the empty set is closed, we have to see that $X$ $emptyset$ is open, and $X = X$ $emptyset$ is open in any topology by definition. Likewise, $X$ $X = emptyset$ is open, hence $X$ is closed.



Not sure how to answer $a)$ and $b)$



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $x in X$. Show that the subset ${x} subset X$ is closed with respect to $tau(d)$



To solve this problem I have looked at properties of closed sets:



$a)$ The empty set $emptyset$ and the whole space $X$ are closed.



$b)$ If $A subset X$ and $B subset X$ are closed, so is their union $A
cup B$
.



$c)$ Let $I$ be a set and let $(A_i)_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then their intersection $bigcap_{i in I} A_i$ is closed as well.



To show that the empty set is closed, we have to see that $X$ $emptyset$ is open, and $X = X$ $emptyset$ is open in any topology by definition. Likewise, $X$ $X = emptyset$ is open, hence $X$ is closed.



Not sure how to answer $a)$ and $b)$



Thanks in advance.







general-topology






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 21 at 11:21









Andrews

1,2812422




1,2812422










asked Mar 19 at 15:51









Ben JonesBen Jones

19511




19511








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is $tau(d)$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – TheSilverDoe
    Mar 19 at 15:56










  • $begingroup$
    You'll need additional restrictions on the topology. For instance, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the topology ${ varnothing, mathbb{R}}$, then singletons ${x}$ will not be closed. Is $X$ supposed to be either $T_1$ or Hausdorff?
    $endgroup$
    – rolandcyp
    Mar 19 at 15:57
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is $tau(d)$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – TheSilverDoe
    Mar 19 at 15:56










  • $begingroup$
    You'll need additional restrictions on the topology. For instance, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the topology ${ varnothing, mathbb{R}}$, then singletons ${x}$ will not be closed. Is $X$ supposed to be either $T_1$ or Hausdorff?
    $endgroup$
    – rolandcyp
    Mar 19 at 15:57










2




2




$begingroup$
What is $tau(d)$ ?
$endgroup$
– TheSilverDoe
Mar 19 at 15:56




$begingroup$
What is $tau(d)$ ?
$endgroup$
– TheSilverDoe
Mar 19 at 15:56












$begingroup$
You'll need additional restrictions on the topology. For instance, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the topology ${ varnothing, mathbb{R}}$, then singletons ${x}$ will not be closed. Is $X$ supposed to be either $T_1$ or Hausdorff?
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 15:57






$begingroup$
You'll need additional restrictions on the topology. For instance, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the topology ${ varnothing, mathbb{R}}$, then singletons ${x}$ will not be closed. Is $X$ supposed to be either $T_1$ or Hausdorff?
$endgroup$
– rolandcyp
Mar 19 at 15:57












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

For now let $(X,tau)$ be a general topological space. You have already shown that $X$ and $varnothing$ are closed. For (b), let $A$ and $B$ be closed subsets of $X$. To prove that $A cup B$ is closed, we need only check that $(A cup B)^complement = A^complement cap B^complement$ is open. But this is immediate since $A^complement$ and $B^complement$ are open and finite intersections of open sets are open.



Treating (c), let ${A_i}_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then,
begin{align*}
left( bigcap_{i in I} A_i right)^complement = bigcup_{i in I} A_i^complement
end{align*}

is open because arbitrary unions of open sets are open (and every $A_i^complement$ is open by definition). This proves (c).



Now, given an arbitrary topological space $(X,tau)$, it is not true in general that every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$. As I pointed out in the comments, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the indiscrete topology ${mathbb{R}, varnothing}$, then every singleton will not be closed in $mathbb{R}$.



Let us also recall the following definition:




Definition. A space $(X,tau)$ is said to be $T_1$ if for any $x,y in X$ with $x neq y$, there exists an open set $U ni x$ that does not contain $y$.




Without assuming that $(X,tau)$ is either Hausdorff or $T_1$, it will be impossible to show that singletons are closed. In fact, the following equivalence holds:




Theorem. Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space. Then, $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$ if and only if every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$.




In light of this theorem, it's clear that one cannot hope to prove what you want without any additional assumptions on the space $(X,tau)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    $begingroup$

    For now let $(X,tau)$ be a general topological space. You have already shown that $X$ and $varnothing$ are closed. For (b), let $A$ and $B$ be closed subsets of $X$. To prove that $A cup B$ is closed, we need only check that $(A cup B)^complement = A^complement cap B^complement$ is open. But this is immediate since $A^complement$ and $B^complement$ are open and finite intersections of open sets are open.



    Treating (c), let ${A_i}_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then,
    begin{align*}
    left( bigcap_{i in I} A_i right)^complement = bigcup_{i in I} A_i^complement
    end{align*}

    is open because arbitrary unions of open sets are open (and every $A_i^complement$ is open by definition). This proves (c).



    Now, given an arbitrary topological space $(X,tau)$, it is not true in general that every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$. As I pointed out in the comments, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the indiscrete topology ${mathbb{R}, varnothing}$, then every singleton will not be closed in $mathbb{R}$.



    Let us also recall the following definition:




    Definition. A space $(X,tau)$ is said to be $T_1$ if for any $x,y in X$ with $x neq y$, there exists an open set $U ni x$ that does not contain $y$.




    Without assuming that $(X,tau)$ is either Hausdorff or $T_1$, it will be impossible to show that singletons are closed. In fact, the following equivalence holds:




    Theorem. Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space. Then, $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$ if and only if every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$.




    In light of this theorem, it's clear that one cannot hope to prove what you want without any additional assumptions on the space $(X,tau)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      For now let $(X,tau)$ be a general topological space. You have already shown that $X$ and $varnothing$ are closed. For (b), let $A$ and $B$ be closed subsets of $X$. To prove that $A cup B$ is closed, we need only check that $(A cup B)^complement = A^complement cap B^complement$ is open. But this is immediate since $A^complement$ and $B^complement$ are open and finite intersections of open sets are open.



      Treating (c), let ${A_i}_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then,
      begin{align*}
      left( bigcap_{i in I} A_i right)^complement = bigcup_{i in I} A_i^complement
      end{align*}

      is open because arbitrary unions of open sets are open (and every $A_i^complement$ is open by definition). This proves (c).



      Now, given an arbitrary topological space $(X,tau)$, it is not true in general that every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$. As I pointed out in the comments, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the indiscrete topology ${mathbb{R}, varnothing}$, then every singleton will not be closed in $mathbb{R}$.



      Let us also recall the following definition:




      Definition. A space $(X,tau)$ is said to be $T_1$ if for any $x,y in X$ with $x neq y$, there exists an open set $U ni x$ that does not contain $y$.




      Without assuming that $(X,tau)$ is either Hausdorff or $T_1$, it will be impossible to show that singletons are closed. In fact, the following equivalence holds:




      Theorem. Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space. Then, $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$ if and only if every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$.




      In light of this theorem, it's clear that one cannot hope to prove what you want without any additional assumptions on the space $(X,tau)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        For now let $(X,tau)$ be a general topological space. You have already shown that $X$ and $varnothing$ are closed. For (b), let $A$ and $B$ be closed subsets of $X$. To prove that $A cup B$ is closed, we need only check that $(A cup B)^complement = A^complement cap B^complement$ is open. But this is immediate since $A^complement$ and $B^complement$ are open and finite intersections of open sets are open.



        Treating (c), let ${A_i}_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then,
        begin{align*}
        left( bigcap_{i in I} A_i right)^complement = bigcup_{i in I} A_i^complement
        end{align*}

        is open because arbitrary unions of open sets are open (and every $A_i^complement$ is open by definition). This proves (c).



        Now, given an arbitrary topological space $(X,tau)$, it is not true in general that every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$. As I pointed out in the comments, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the indiscrete topology ${mathbb{R}, varnothing}$, then every singleton will not be closed in $mathbb{R}$.



        Let us also recall the following definition:




        Definition. A space $(X,tau)$ is said to be $T_1$ if for any $x,y in X$ with $x neq y$, there exists an open set $U ni x$ that does not contain $y$.




        Without assuming that $(X,tau)$ is either Hausdorff or $T_1$, it will be impossible to show that singletons are closed. In fact, the following equivalence holds:




        Theorem. Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space. Then, $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$ if and only if every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$.




        In light of this theorem, it's clear that one cannot hope to prove what you want without any additional assumptions on the space $(X,tau)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        For now let $(X,tau)$ be a general topological space. You have already shown that $X$ and $varnothing$ are closed. For (b), let $A$ and $B$ be closed subsets of $X$. To prove that $A cup B$ is closed, we need only check that $(A cup B)^complement = A^complement cap B^complement$ is open. But this is immediate since $A^complement$ and $B^complement$ are open and finite intersections of open sets are open.



        Treating (c), let ${A_i}_{i in I}$ be a family of closed subsets of $X$. Then,
        begin{align*}
        left( bigcap_{i in I} A_i right)^complement = bigcup_{i in I} A_i^complement
        end{align*}

        is open because arbitrary unions of open sets are open (and every $A_i^complement$ is open by definition). This proves (c).



        Now, given an arbitrary topological space $(X,tau)$, it is not true in general that every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$. As I pointed out in the comments, if we give $mathbb{R}$ the indiscrete topology ${mathbb{R}, varnothing}$, then every singleton will not be closed in $mathbb{R}$.



        Let us also recall the following definition:




        Definition. A space $(X,tau)$ is said to be $T_1$ if for any $x,y in X$ with $x neq y$, there exists an open set $U ni x$ that does not contain $y$.




        Without assuming that $(X,tau)$ is either Hausdorff or $T_1$, it will be impossible to show that singletons are closed. In fact, the following equivalence holds:




        Theorem. Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space. Then, $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$ if and only if every singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$.




        In light of this theorem, it's clear that one cannot hope to prove what you want without any additional assumptions on the space $(X,tau)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 19 at 16:10









        rolandcyprolandcyp

        2,234421




        2,234421






























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