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Prove that for any sets $A$ and $B $ with $(A - B) ∪ (B - A) = A ∪ B$ , then $A ∩ B = ∅$



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowProving that the sets $A$ and $Asetminus B$ have the same cardinality if $A$ is uncoutnable and $B$ is countableUnion and Intersection of setsShow that if A, B, and C are sets thenProve that sets $A$ and $B$ are disjoint iff $A cup B = A bigtriangleup B$Prove that if sets $A$ and $B$ are countable, then their union $Acup B$ is countableProve A = $(A cap B) cup (A cap B^c)$ using the distributive and associative law.Let A be a denumerable set. Prove that the set ${B:Bsubset A}$ and cardinality of B=1 of all 1-element subsets of A is denumerable.Show that if $A$ and $C$ are disjoint sets, then $(f cup g): A cup C to B cup D$Show that the intersection of any two intervals is an intervalFor any two finite sets $X$ and $Y$, prove that $#(Y^X)=#(Y)^{#(X)}$ by induction












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$begingroup$


So this is an assignment question. I'm not sure how to do it so I started off assuming that intersection of $A$ and $B$ is not empty so if $ p$ is an element in it, then $p$ is an element of $A cup{ B } $ too.



Is this right and if so where do I go from there?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    So this is an assignment question. I'm not sure how to do it so I started off assuming that intersection of $A$ and $B$ is not empty so if $ p$ is an element in it, then $p$ is an element of $A cup{ B } $ too.



    Is this right and if so where do I go from there?



    Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      So this is an assignment question. I'm not sure how to do it so I started off assuming that intersection of $A$ and $B$ is not empty so if $ p$ is an element in it, then $p$ is an element of $A cup{ B } $ too.



      Is this right and if so where do I go from there?



      Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      So this is an assignment question. I'm not sure how to do it so I started off assuming that intersection of $A$ and $B$ is not empty so if $ p$ is an element in it, then $p$ is an element of $A cup{ B } $ too.



      Is this right and if so where do I go from there?



      Thanks in advance!







      proof-verification elementary-set-theory






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 17 at 2:58









      YuiTo Cheng

      2,1862937




      2,1862937










      asked Nov 7 '18 at 14:33









      AnoUser1AnoUser1

      836




      836






















          2 Answers
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          3












          $begingroup$

          Assume $exists xin A cap B$. Then $x notin A $ $B $ and $x notin B$ $A$ (do you see why?)



          Hence $x notin (A $ $B)cup (B$ $A)$. However $xin Acup B$ hence a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            Yes, it's a good starting point. Now, since $pnotin Asetminus B$ and $pnotin Bsetminus A$, $pnotin(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$. This proves that $Acup Bneq(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$














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              $begingroup$

              Assume $exists xin A cap B$. Then $x notin A $ $B $ and $x notin B$ $A$ (do you see why?)



              Hence $x notin (A $ $B)cup (B$ $A)$. However $xin Acup B$ hence a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                Assume $exists xin A cap B$. Then $x notin A $ $B $ and $x notin B$ $A$ (do you see why?)



                Hence $x notin (A $ $B)cup (B$ $A)$. However $xin Acup B$ hence a contradiction.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  Assume $exists xin A cap B$. Then $x notin A $ $B $ and $x notin B$ $A$ (do you see why?)



                  Hence $x notin (A $ $B)cup (B$ $A)$. However $xin Acup B$ hence a contradiction.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Assume $exists xin A cap B$. Then $x notin A $ $B $ and $x notin B$ $A$ (do you see why?)



                  Hence $x notin (A $ $B)cup (B$ $A)$. However $xin Acup B$ hence a contradiction.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 7 '18 at 14:39









                  asdfasdf

                  3,701519




                  3,701519























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      Yes, it's a good starting point. Now, since $pnotin Asetminus B$ and $pnotin Bsetminus A$, $pnotin(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$. This proves that $Acup Bneq(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$


















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        Yes, it's a good starting point. Now, since $pnotin Asetminus B$ and $pnotin Bsetminus A$, $pnotin(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$. This proves that $Acup Bneq(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$
















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          Yes, it's a good starting point. Now, since $pnotin Asetminus B$ and $pnotin Bsetminus A$, $pnotin(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$. This proves that $Acup Bneq(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$



                          Yes, it's a good starting point. Now, since $pnotin Asetminus B$ and $pnotin Bsetminus A$, $pnotin(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$. This proves that $Acup Bneq(Asetminus B)cup(Bsetminus A)$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Nov 7 '18 at 15:32

























                          answered Nov 7 '18 at 14:40









                          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                          171k23132240




                          171k23132240






























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