Counting lattice points with relatively prime coordinates The Next CEO of Stack...

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Counting lattice points with relatively prime coordinates



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowCounting Lattice Points with Ehrhart PolynomialsFinding a set of subsets such that for each such subset in the set, there exists another subset in the same set which is non-disjointConcise proof that every common divisor divides GCD without Bezout's identity?counting lattice paths with turnsFind the condition for a center of a circle with exactly one lattice point on its circumferenceUnderstanding the proof of unique natural divisorConditions for $(I+K)cap (J+K) = Icap J +K $ to hold for ideals of ring $R$Probabilistic/combinatoric proof of $sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{tk+r}{k}binom{t(n-k)+s}{n-k}frac{r}{tk+r}=binom{tn+r+s}{n}$A proof of a simple combinatorial lemmaCounting Lattice Points












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$begingroup$


My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.




Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
, : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$

$$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$
Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.




Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$



We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.



Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.




    Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
    , : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$

    $$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
    gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$
    Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.




    Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$



    We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.



    Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.




      Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
      , : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$

      $$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
      gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$
      Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.




      Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$



      We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.



      Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      My Question: Here is a fact, and a proof of said fact. I am wondering if someone can provide a cleaner/less convoluted argument, as it seems to me like a fact that ought to possess a very simple proof. Actually, it would be nice to see any substantially different proof.




      Fact: Consider the sets of lattice points $$R = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2}
      , : , 1le x, y le n , , gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+yleq n}$$

      $$S = {(x,y) in mathbb{N}^{2} , : , 1le x, y le n , ,
      gcd(x,y) = 1, text{ and } x+y > n}$$
      Then, we have $|S| = |R| + 1$.




      Proof: For each $k in mathbb{N}$, we have the sets $$S_{k} = left{(x,y) in S , : , k le frac{x}{y} < k+1right}$$ $$R_{k, <} = left{(x,y) in R , : , kle frac{n-x}{y} < k+1 , ,, x<yright}$$



      We have a map $f_k : S_k to R_{k,<}$ sending $(x,y) mapsto (x-ky, y)$, which is in fact a bijection for $kneq n$, with inverse $(x,y) mapsto (x+ky, y)$. When $k = n$, it is almost a bijection, i.e. $f_n$ is a bijection from $S_n setminus {(n,1)}$ onto $R_{n, <}$.



      Since we have disjoint unions $$bigcup_{kge 1} R_{k,<} = R cap {x<y}$$ $$bigcup_{kge 1} S_k = S cap {xge y}$$ it follows that $|R cap {x<y}| = |S cap {xge y}| - 1$. Noting that $|R cap {x<y}| = |R cap {x>y}|$ via the map $(x,y) mapsto (y,x)$, and similarly $|S cap {xge y}| = |S cap {x < y}|$, it follows that (taking care not to forget $(1,1) in R$) we have $$|R| = 1+ 2|R cap {x<y}| = 1+2(|Scap {xge y}| - 1) = |S| - 1$$ as desired. $blacksquare$







      combinatorics elementary-number-theory






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      edited Mar 18 at 2:09







      Sameer Kailasa

















      asked Mar 18 at 1:32









      Sameer KailasaSameer Kailasa

      5,59321843




      5,59321843






















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          $begingroup$

          A heuristic start:



          Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            A heuristic start:



            Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              A heuristic start:



              Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                A heuristic start:



                Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                A heuristic start:



                Note, that you form a diagonal line with the equals of the first set. This line has $frac{n(n-1)}{2}$ points, on or below it. The total lattice has $n^2$ so in theory $n^2-n(n-1)=1$ but that's false (it's actually n). What we failed to consider, is coprimality that will decrease the numbers.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 18 at 13:15









                Roddy MacPheeRoddy MacPhee

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                629118






























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