$f : Bbb{C} to Bbb{C}$ is an entire function s.t. $|f(z)| to infty$ as $|z| to infty$. Prove $f$ is a...

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$f : Bbb{C} to Bbb{C}$ is an entire function s.t. $|f(z)| to infty$ as $|z| to infty$. Prove $f$ is a polynomial.



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InIf $F$ is entire with removable singularity at $infty$, then $F$ is constant?bounded real part then removable singularityAt $z=0$ the function $f(z)=exp({zover 1-cos z})$ hasMust an entire function be bounded in any open disk around the origin?Extending an analytic function to an entire functionNot understanding how to use the following information: $f$ is entire, and $lim _{|z| rightarrow infty} frac{f(z)}{z^2}=2i$Prove that $fequiv 0$ where $f$ is entireFind all entire function $f$ such that $lim_{zto infty}left|frac{f(z)}{z}right|=0$problem on existence of entire functionShouldn't a entire function be strictly a polynomial?












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$begingroup$


Let $f : mathbb{C} rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an entire function such that $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$. Prove that $f$ is a polynomial by following the steps below.



(a) Observe that the function $f(1/z)$ defined in $C setminus{0}$ has a pole at the origin. Let $S$ be the
singular part of its Laurent series around $0$. Argue that $g(z) = f(z) − S(1/z)$ approaches
finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$.



(b) Prove that $g$ extends to a bounded entire function and is therefore constant.



(c) Deduce that $f$ is a polynomial.





I know there are solutions to this but not with these steps. I have been given this as an assignment and really need help to figure out how to write the solution.



For point (a) I wrote



In order for $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$, is equavalent saying $|f(frac{1}{z})| rightarrow infty$ as $z rightarrow 0$. So $f(z)$ can be written in Laurent series around the point $0$ such that $sum_{n=-infty}^infty a_nz^n = g(z) + s(frac{1}{z})$ given $g(z)$ is the power series $sum_{n=0}^infty a_nz^n$ and $S$ is the singular part of its Laurent series around $0$.



Hence,
$ g(z)= f(z) - s(frac{1}{z})$ and $g(z)$ tends to a
finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$ given the power series.



For (b) I wrote



Only removable singularities are left in $g(z)$. So
with Riemann's removable singularity theorem, with $p$ being some removable singularity. $g(z)$ can be extended continuously and holomorphically at $p$ and since $g(z)$ is bonded on some disc around $p$ excluding the point $p$ with a radius bigger than $0$. Hence the extended function is bounded as well and by Liouville's theorem, it is a constant function.



And I have no clue how to answer (c), sorry for the long post and thanks in advance!!!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    4












    $begingroup$


    Let $f : mathbb{C} rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an entire function such that $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$. Prove that $f$ is a polynomial by following the steps below.



    (a) Observe that the function $f(1/z)$ defined in $C setminus{0}$ has a pole at the origin. Let $S$ be the
    singular part of its Laurent series around $0$. Argue that $g(z) = f(z) − S(1/z)$ approaches
    finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$.



    (b) Prove that $g$ extends to a bounded entire function and is therefore constant.



    (c) Deduce that $f$ is a polynomial.





    I know there are solutions to this but not with these steps. I have been given this as an assignment and really need help to figure out how to write the solution.



    For point (a) I wrote



    In order for $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$, is equavalent saying $|f(frac{1}{z})| rightarrow infty$ as $z rightarrow 0$. So $f(z)$ can be written in Laurent series around the point $0$ such that $sum_{n=-infty}^infty a_nz^n = g(z) + s(frac{1}{z})$ given $g(z)$ is the power series $sum_{n=0}^infty a_nz^n$ and $S$ is the singular part of its Laurent series around $0$.



    Hence,
    $ g(z)= f(z) - s(frac{1}{z})$ and $g(z)$ tends to a
    finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$ given the power series.



    For (b) I wrote



    Only removable singularities are left in $g(z)$. So
    with Riemann's removable singularity theorem, with $p$ being some removable singularity. $g(z)$ can be extended continuously and holomorphically at $p$ and since $g(z)$ is bonded on some disc around $p$ excluding the point $p$ with a radius bigger than $0$. Hence the extended function is bounded as well and by Liouville's theorem, it is a constant function.



    And I have no clue how to answer (c), sorry for the long post and thanks in advance!!!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      4












      4








      4


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $f : mathbb{C} rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an entire function such that $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$. Prove that $f$ is a polynomial by following the steps below.



      (a) Observe that the function $f(1/z)$ defined in $C setminus{0}$ has a pole at the origin. Let $S$ be the
      singular part of its Laurent series around $0$. Argue that $g(z) = f(z) − S(1/z)$ approaches
      finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$.



      (b) Prove that $g$ extends to a bounded entire function and is therefore constant.



      (c) Deduce that $f$ is a polynomial.





      I know there are solutions to this but not with these steps. I have been given this as an assignment and really need help to figure out how to write the solution.



      For point (a) I wrote



      In order for $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$, is equavalent saying $|f(frac{1}{z})| rightarrow infty$ as $z rightarrow 0$. So $f(z)$ can be written in Laurent series around the point $0$ such that $sum_{n=-infty}^infty a_nz^n = g(z) + s(frac{1}{z})$ given $g(z)$ is the power series $sum_{n=0}^infty a_nz^n$ and $S$ is the singular part of its Laurent series around $0$.



      Hence,
      $ g(z)= f(z) - s(frac{1}{z})$ and $g(z)$ tends to a
      finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$ given the power series.



      For (b) I wrote



      Only removable singularities are left in $g(z)$. So
      with Riemann's removable singularity theorem, with $p$ being some removable singularity. $g(z)$ can be extended continuously and holomorphically at $p$ and since $g(z)$ is bonded on some disc around $p$ excluding the point $p$ with a radius bigger than $0$. Hence the extended function is bounded as well and by Liouville's theorem, it is a constant function.



      And I have no clue how to answer (c), sorry for the long post and thanks in advance!!!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $f : mathbb{C} rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an entire function such that $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$. Prove that $f$ is a polynomial by following the steps below.



      (a) Observe that the function $f(1/z)$ defined in $C setminus{0}$ has a pole at the origin. Let $S$ be the
      singular part of its Laurent series around $0$. Argue that $g(z) = f(z) − S(1/z)$ approaches
      finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$.



      (b) Prove that $g$ extends to a bounded entire function and is therefore constant.



      (c) Deduce that $f$ is a polynomial.





      I know there are solutions to this but not with these steps. I have been given this as an assignment and really need help to figure out how to write the solution.



      For point (a) I wrote



      In order for $|f(z)| rightarrow infty$ as $|z| rightarrow infty$, is equavalent saying $|f(frac{1}{z})| rightarrow infty$ as $z rightarrow 0$. So $f(z)$ can be written in Laurent series around the point $0$ such that $sum_{n=-infty}^infty a_nz^n = g(z) + s(frac{1}{z})$ given $g(z)$ is the power series $sum_{n=0}^infty a_nz^n$ and $S$ is the singular part of its Laurent series around $0$.



      Hence,
      $ g(z)= f(z) - s(frac{1}{z})$ and $g(z)$ tends to a
      finite limits as $z rightarrow 0$ and as $|z| rightarrow infty$ given the power series.



      For (b) I wrote



      Only removable singularities are left in $g(z)$. So
      with Riemann's removable singularity theorem, with $p$ being some removable singularity. $g(z)$ can be extended continuously and holomorphically at $p$ and since $g(z)$ is bonded on some disc around $p$ excluding the point $p$ with a radius bigger than $0$. Hence the extended function is bounded as well and by Liouville's theorem, it is a constant function.



      And I have no clue how to answer (c), sorry for the long post and thanks in advance!!!







      complex-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 22 at 2:45









      Andrews

      1,2812423




      1,2812423










      asked Mar 22 at 0:37









      ChengCheng

      233




      233






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          In your solution to part (a), notice that the Laurent series you have written down is for $f(frac 1z)$, so the correct formula is $f(frac 1z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n z^n +S(z)$. So by the change of coordinates $zmapsto frac 1z$, we get $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_nfrac 1{z^n} +S(frac 1z)$. So the $g(z)$ in the question is actually $sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$. As $|z|toinfty$, this series indeed tends to $a_0$, which is finite. As for $zto 0$. Now by looking that the Laurent series again, we see that $S(frac 1z)$ has removable singularity at $z=0$. So $g(z)=f(z)-S(frac 1z)$ also has removable singularity at $z=0$, in other words the limit as $zto 0$ exists.



          For part (b), holomorphicity of $g(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$ follows directly from $g$ having removable singularity at $0$. By comparing the power series and Laurent series, we see that the only term appearing in the series must be the constant $a_0$ only.



          For part (c), the hint is to look at the Laurent expansion of $f(frac 1z)$ again, and recover the series for $f(z)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            In your solution to part (a), notice that the Laurent series you have written down is for $f(frac 1z)$, so the correct formula is $f(frac 1z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n z^n +S(z)$. So by the change of coordinates $zmapsto frac 1z$, we get $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_nfrac 1{z^n} +S(frac 1z)$. So the $g(z)$ in the question is actually $sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$. As $|z|toinfty$, this series indeed tends to $a_0$, which is finite. As for $zto 0$. Now by looking that the Laurent series again, we see that $S(frac 1z)$ has removable singularity at $z=0$. So $g(z)=f(z)-S(frac 1z)$ also has removable singularity at $z=0$, in other words the limit as $zto 0$ exists.



            For part (b), holomorphicity of $g(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$ follows directly from $g$ having removable singularity at $0$. By comparing the power series and Laurent series, we see that the only term appearing in the series must be the constant $a_0$ only.



            For part (c), the hint is to look at the Laurent expansion of $f(frac 1z)$ again, and recover the series for $f(z)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              In your solution to part (a), notice that the Laurent series you have written down is for $f(frac 1z)$, so the correct formula is $f(frac 1z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n z^n +S(z)$. So by the change of coordinates $zmapsto frac 1z$, we get $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_nfrac 1{z^n} +S(frac 1z)$. So the $g(z)$ in the question is actually $sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$. As $|z|toinfty$, this series indeed tends to $a_0$, which is finite. As for $zto 0$. Now by looking that the Laurent series again, we see that $S(frac 1z)$ has removable singularity at $z=0$. So $g(z)=f(z)-S(frac 1z)$ also has removable singularity at $z=0$, in other words the limit as $zto 0$ exists.



              For part (b), holomorphicity of $g(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$ follows directly from $g$ having removable singularity at $0$. By comparing the power series and Laurent series, we see that the only term appearing in the series must be the constant $a_0$ only.



              For part (c), the hint is to look at the Laurent expansion of $f(frac 1z)$ again, and recover the series for $f(z)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                In your solution to part (a), notice that the Laurent series you have written down is for $f(frac 1z)$, so the correct formula is $f(frac 1z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n z^n +S(z)$. So by the change of coordinates $zmapsto frac 1z$, we get $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_nfrac 1{z^n} +S(frac 1z)$. So the $g(z)$ in the question is actually $sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$. As $|z|toinfty$, this series indeed tends to $a_0$, which is finite. As for $zto 0$. Now by looking that the Laurent series again, we see that $S(frac 1z)$ has removable singularity at $z=0$. So $g(z)=f(z)-S(frac 1z)$ also has removable singularity at $z=0$, in other words the limit as $zto 0$ exists.



                For part (b), holomorphicity of $g(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$ follows directly from $g$ having removable singularity at $0$. By comparing the power series and Laurent series, we see that the only term appearing in the series must be the constant $a_0$ only.



                For part (c), the hint is to look at the Laurent expansion of $f(frac 1z)$ again, and recover the series for $f(z)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                In your solution to part (a), notice that the Laurent series you have written down is for $f(frac 1z)$, so the correct formula is $f(frac 1z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n z^n +S(z)$. So by the change of coordinates $zmapsto frac 1z$, we get $f(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_nfrac 1{z^n} +S(frac 1z)$. So the $g(z)$ in the question is actually $sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$. As $|z|toinfty$, this series indeed tends to $a_0$, which is finite. As for $zto 0$. Now by looking that the Laurent series again, we see that $S(frac 1z)$ has removable singularity at $z=0$. So $g(z)=f(z)-S(frac 1z)$ also has removable singularity at $z=0$, in other words the limit as $zto 0$ exists.



                For part (b), holomorphicity of $g(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n frac 1{z^n}$ follows directly from $g$ having removable singularity at $0$. By comparing the power series and Laurent series, we see that the only term appearing in the series must be the constant $a_0$ only.



                For part (c), the hint is to look at the Laurent expansion of $f(frac 1z)$ again, and recover the series for $f(z)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Mar 22 at 3:53









                lEmlEm

                3,4321921




                3,4321921






























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