Set and Set Complement of Uniform Distribution on [0,1] The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer...

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Set and Set Complement of Uniform Distribution on [0,1]



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InA question regarding Borel sets, the Lebesgue measure, and Cantor-type setsUnion of Sets Dense in $[0,1]$For set of positive measure $E$, $alpha in (0, 1)$, there is interval $I$ such that $m(E cap I) > alpha , m(I)$Measure Theory - working with unusual measures and set functionsShowing $chi_Gnotinmathcal{R}[0,1]$ where: $G$ open, $mathbb{Q}cap[0,1] subset G,$ and $m(G)<frac{1}{2}$How can I construct such a Borel subset?How to prove complement of generalized Cantor set is dense in $[0,1]$A discontinuous function at every point in $[0,1]$Asking about a hint: constructing a cantor-like setCantor-Like Sets












0












$begingroup$


This questions first came to mind a few years ago when I was taking a course on real analysis as an undergraduate. I posed it to my instructor but he did not know a means of solving my inquiry. But to the point, does there exist a set (or is there a means of constructing a set) such that for a set of points $S in [0,1]$ and $S^{C} in [0,1]$ $S$ and $S^{C}$ both have measure $frac{1}{2}$ and for any arbitrary sub-interval $(a,b)$ of $[0,1]$ the value $mu_{S} = mu (S : cap : (a,b))=mu (S^{C} : cap : (a,b)) = mu_{S^{C}}$ ? Just to clarify $S^{C}$ is the complement of $S$ on the unit interval, or put differently $S^{C} = S^{complement} : cap : [0,1]$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    This questions first came to mind a few years ago when I was taking a course on real analysis as an undergraduate. I posed it to my instructor but he did not know a means of solving my inquiry. But to the point, does there exist a set (or is there a means of constructing a set) such that for a set of points $S in [0,1]$ and $S^{C} in [0,1]$ $S$ and $S^{C}$ both have measure $frac{1}{2}$ and for any arbitrary sub-interval $(a,b)$ of $[0,1]$ the value $mu_{S} = mu (S : cap : (a,b))=mu (S^{C} : cap : (a,b)) = mu_{S^{C}}$ ? Just to clarify $S^{C}$ is the complement of $S$ on the unit interval, or put differently $S^{C} = S^{complement} : cap : [0,1]$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      This questions first came to mind a few years ago when I was taking a course on real analysis as an undergraduate. I posed it to my instructor but he did not know a means of solving my inquiry. But to the point, does there exist a set (or is there a means of constructing a set) such that for a set of points $S in [0,1]$ and $S^{C} in [0,1]$ $S$ and $S^{C}$ both have measure $frac{1}{2}$ and for any arbitrary sub-interval $(a,b)$ of $[0,1]$ the value $mu_{S} = mu (S : cap : (a,b))=mu (S^{C} : cap : (a,b)) = mu_{S^{C}}$ ? Just to clarify $S^{C}$ is the complement of $S$ on the unit interval, or put differently $S^{C} = S^{complement} : cap : [0,1]$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      This questions first came to mind a few years ago when I was taking a course on real analysis as an undergraduate. I posed it to my instructor but he did not know a means of solving my inquiry. But to the point, does there exist a set (or is there a means of constructing a set) such that for a set of points $S in [0,1]$ and $S^{C} in [0,1]$ $S$ and $S^{C}$ both have measure $frac{1}{2}$ and for any arbitrary sub-interval $(a,b)$ of $[0,1]$ the value $mu_{S} = mu (S : cap : (a,b))=mu (S^{C} : cap : (a,b)) = mu_{S^{C}}$ ? Just to clarify $S^{C}$ is the complement of $S$ on the unit interval, or put differently $S^{C} = S^{complement} : cap : [0,1]$







      real-analysis measure-theory






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 22 at 3:05









      Andrés E. Caicedo

      65.9k8160252




      65.9k8160252










      asked Mar 22 at 1:16









      David G.David G.

      156




      156






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          No, there is no such measurable set. If there were you can get a contradiction as follows.



          Note that $mu_Sllmu$ because $mu(A)=0$ implies $mu_S(A)=mu(Acap S)=0$, so the Radon Nikodym theorem applies: there exists a function $f$ such that $mu_S(A)=int_A f dx$, unique up to measure $0$ modifications. Calculate this Radon Nikodym derivative two different ways. On the one hand, $f=chi_S$, the indicator function of $S$, since $mu_S(A)=int_A chi_S(x)dx$. On the other, it is the constant function $1/2$. (Evaluate $F(x)=mu_S([0,x]) = x/2$, and so on.)
          These two formulas do not agree almost everywhere.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So unfortunately, I don't quite understand why the RN derivative is equal to the indicator function $chi_{S}$. Could you please expand?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 2:27










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG. I have edited my answer. I hope it makes it clearer.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 11:10










          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why $mu (A) = 0$ since $A = (a,b)$ wouldn't it necessarily be the case that $mu (A) = b-a$?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 15:53










          • $begingroup$
            The condition for $mu_Sllmu$ is that whenever $mu(A)=0$ we also have $mu_S(A)=0$, too. Which is satisfied by your $mu_S$.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 15:58










          • $begingroup$
            Could you clarify why $mu_{S} ll mu$? It seems to me that the relation should be $mu_{s} = frac{1}{2} mu$ which still holds when $mu (A) = 0$
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 16:11



















          1












          $begingroup$

          By a standard argument $mu(Scap (a,b))=mu(S^{c}cap (a,b))$ for every subinterval $(a,b)$ implies $mu(Scap A)=mu(S^{c}cap A)$ for every Bore set $A$. Taking $A=S$ we get a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I understand your point, however, I'm inclined to believe that $S$ cannot equal $A$ as I don't see how $S$ is an interval.
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 6:38










          • $begingroup$
            If you extend the equality from intervals to measurable sets you can then take $A=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 22 at 6:40










          • $begingroup$
            Though this is true, that breaks the statement of the question and circumvents the basis of the question. The subintervals are there to illustrated uniform distribution of points across the unit interval
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 7:24












          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          No, there is no such measurable set. If there were you can get a contradiction as follows.



          Note that $mu_Sllmu$ because $mu(A)=0$ implies $mu_S(A)=mu(Acap S)=0$, so the Radon Nikodym theorem applies: there exists a function $f$ such that $mu_S(A)=int_A f dx$, unique up to measure $0$ modifications. Calculate this Radon Nikodym derivative two different ways. On the one hand, $f=chi_S$, the indicator function of $S$, since $mu_S(A)=int_A chi_S(x)dx$. On the other, it is the constant function $1/2$. (Evaluate $F(x)=mu_S([0,x]) = x/2$, and so on.)
          These two formulas do not agree almost everywhere.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So unfortunately, I don't quite understand why the RN derivative is equal to the indicator function $chi_{S}$. Could you please expand?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 2:27










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG. I have edited my answer. I hope it makes it clearer.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 11:10










          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why $mu (A) = 0$ since $A = (a,b)$ wouldn't it necessarily be the case that $mu (A) = b-a$?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 15:53










          • $begingroup$
            The condition for $mu_Sllmu$ is that whenever $mu(A)=0$ we also have $mu_S(A)=0$, too. Which is satisfied by your $mu_S$.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 15:58










          • $begingroup$
            Could you clarify why $mu_{S} ll mu$? It seems to me that the relation should be $mu_{s} = frac{1}{2} mu$ which still holds when $mu (A) = 0$
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 16:11
















          1












          $begingroup$

          No, there is no such measurable set. If there were you can get a contradiction as follows.



          Note that $mu_Sllmu$ because $mu(A)=0$ implies $mu_S(A)=mu(Acap S)=0$, so the Radon Nikodym theorem applies: there exists a function $f$ such that $mu_S(A)=int_A f dx$, unique up to measure $0$ modifications. Calculate this Radon Nikodym derivative two different ways. On the one hand, $f=chi_S$, the indicator function of $S$, since $mu_S(A)=int_A chi_S(x)dx$. On the other, it is the constant function $1/2$. (Evaluate $F(x)=mu_S([0,x]) = x/2$, and so on.)
          These two formulas do not agree almost everywhere.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So unfortunately, I don't quite understand why the RN derivative is equal to the indicator function $chi_{S}$. Could you please expand?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 2:27










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG. I have edited my answer. I hope it makes it clearer.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 11:10










          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why $mu (A) = 0$ since $A = (a,b)$ wouldn't it necessarily be the case that $mu (A) = b-a$?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 15:53










          • $begingroup$
            The condition for $mu_Sllmu$ is that whenever $mu(A)=0$ we also have $mu_S(A)=0$, too. Which is satisfied by your $mu_S$.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 15:58










          • $begingroup$
            Could you clarify why $mu_{S} ll mu$? It seems to me that the relation should be $mu_{s} = frac{1}{2} mu$ which still holds when $mu (A) = 0$
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 16:11














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          No, there is no such measurable set. If there were you can get a contradiction as follows.



          Note that $mu_Sllmu$ because $mu(A)=0$ implies $mu_S(A)=mu(Acap S)=0$, so the Radon Nikodym theorem applies: there exists a function $f$ such that $mu_S(A)=int_A f dx$, unique up to measure $0$ modifications. Calculate this Radon Nikodym derivative two different ways. On the one hand, $f=chi_S$, the indicator function of $S$, since $mu_S(A)=int_A chi_S(x)dx$. On the other, it is the constant function $1/2$. (Evaluate $F(x)=mu_S([0,x]) = x/2$, and so on.)
          These two formulas do not agree almost everywhere.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          No, there is no such measurable set. If there were you can get a contradiction as follows.



          Note that $mu_Sllmu$ because $mu(A)=0$ implies $mu_S(A)=mu(Acap S)=0$, so the Radon Nikodym theorem applies: there exists a function $f$ such that $mu_S(A)=int_A f dx$, unique up to measure $0$ modifications. Calculate this Radon Nikodym derivative two different ways. On the one hand, $f=chi_S$, the indicator function of $S$, since $mu_S(A)=int_A chi_S(x)dx$. On the other, it is the constant function $1/2$. (Evaluate $F(x)=mu_S([0,x]) = x/2$, and so on.)
          These two formulas do not agree almost everywhere.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 22 at 11:38

























          answered Mar 22 at 1:46









          kimchi loverkimchi lover

          11.8k31229




          11.8k31229












          • $begingroup$
            So unfortunately, I don't quite understand why the RN derivative is equal to the indicator function $chi_{S}$. Could you please expand?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 2:27










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG. I have edited my answer. I hope it makes it clearer.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 11:10










          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why $mu (A) = 0$ since $A = (a,b)$ wouldn't it necessarily be the case that $mu (A) = b-a$?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 15:53










          • $begingroup$
            The condition for $mu_Sllmu$ is that whenever $mu(A)=0$ we also have $mu_S(A)=0$, too. Which is satisfied by your $mu_S$.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 15:58










          • $begingroup$
            Could you clarify why $mu_{S} ll mu$? It seems to me that the relation should be $mu_{s} = frac{1}{2} mu$ which still holds when $mu (A) = 0$
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 16:11


















          • $begingroup$
            So unfortunately, I don't quite understand why the RN derivative is equal to the indicator function $chi_{S}$. Could you please expand?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 2:27










          • $begingroup$
            @DavidG. I have edited my answer. I hope it makes it clearer.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 11:10










          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why $mu (A) = 0$ since $A = (a,b)$ wouldn't it necessarily be the case that $mu (A) = b-a$?
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 15:53










          • $begingroup$
            The condition for $mu_Sllmu$ is that whenever $mu(A)=0$ we also have $mu_S(A)=0$, too. Which is satisfied by your $mu_S$.
            $endgroup$
            – kimchi lover
            Mar 22 at 15:58










          • $begingroup$
            Could you clarify why $mu_{S} ll mu$? It seems to me that the relation should be $mu_{s} = frac{1}{2} mu$ which still holds when $mu (A) = 0$
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 16:11
















          $begingroup$
          So unfortunately, I don't quite understand why the RN derivative is equal to the indicator function $chi_{S}$. Could you please expand?
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 2:27




          $begingroup$
          So unfortunately, I don't quite understand why the RN derivative is equal to the indicator function $chi_{S}$. Could you please expand?
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 2:27












          $begingroup$
          @DavidG. I have edited my answer. I hope it makes it clearer.
          $endgroup$
          – kimchi lover
          Mar 22 at 11:10




          $begingroup$
          @DavidG. I have edited my answer. I hope it makes it clearer.
          $endgroup$
          – kimchi lover
          Mar 22 at 11:10












          $begingroup$
          I don't see why $mu (A) = 0$ since $A = (a,b)$ wouldn't it necessarily be the case that $mu (A) = b-a$?
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 15:53




          $begingroup$
          I don't see why $mu (A) = 0$ since $A = (a,b)$ wouldn't it necessarily be the case that $mu (A) = b-a$?
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 15:53












          $begingroup$
          The condition for $mu_Sllmu$ is that whenever $mu(A)=0$ we also have $mu_S(A)=0$, too. Which is satisfied by your $mu_S$.
          $endgroup$
          – kimchi lover
          Mar 22 at 15:58




          $begingroup$
          The condition for $mu_Sllmu$ is that whenever $mu(A)=0$ we also have $mu_S(A)=0$, too. Which is satisfied by your $mu_S$.
          $endgroup$
          – kimchi lover
          Mar 22 at 15:58












          $begingroup$
          Could you clarify why $mu_{S} ll mu$? It seems to me that the relation should be $mu_{s} = frac{1}{2} mu$ which still holds when $mu (A) = 0$
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 16:11




          $begingroup$
          Could you clarify why $mu_{S} ll mu$? It seems to me that the relation should be $mu_{s} = frac{1}{2} mu$ which still holds when $mu (A) = 0$
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 16:11











          1












          $begingroup$

          By a standard argument $mu(Scap (a,b))=mu(S^{c}cap (a,b))$ for every subinterval $(a,b)$ implies $mu(Scap A)=mu(S^{c}cap A)$ for every Bore set $A$. Taking $A=S$ we get a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I understand your point, however, I'm inclined to believe that $S$ cannot equal $A$ as I don't see how $S$ is an interval.
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 6:38










          • $begingroup$
            If you extend the equality from intervals to measurable sets you can then take $A=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 22 at 6:40










          • $begingroup$
            Though this is true, that breaks the statement of the question and circumvents the basis of the question. The subintervals are there to illustrated uniform distribution of points across the unit interval
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 7:24
















          1












          $begingroup$

          By a standard argument $mu(Scap (a,b))=mu(S^{c}cap (a,b))$ for every subinterval $(a,b)$ implies $mu(Scap A)=mu(S^{c}cap A)$ for every Bore set $A$. Taking $A=S$ we get a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I understand your point, however, I'm inclined to believe that $S$ cannot equal $A$ as I don't see how $S$ is an interval.
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 6:38










          • $begingroup$
            If you extend the equality from intervals to measurable sets you can then take $A=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 22 at 6:40










          • $begingroup$
            Though this is true, that breaks the statement of the question and circumvents the basis of the question. The subintervals are there to illustrated uniform distribution of points across the unit interval
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 7:24














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          By a standard argument $mu(Scap (a,b))=mu(S^{c}cap (a,b))$ for every subinterval $(a,b)$ implies $mu(Scap A)=mu(S^{c}cap A)$ for every Bore set $A$. Taking $A=S$ we get a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          By a standard argument $mu(Scap (a,b))=mu(S^{c}cap (a,b))$ for every subinterval $(a,b)$ implies $mu(Scap A)=mu(S^{c}cap A)$ for every Bore set $A$. Taking $A=S$ we get a contradiction.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 22 at 6:06









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          74.1k53270




          74.1k53270












          • $begingroup$
            I understand your point, however, I'm inclined to believe that $S$ cannot equal $A$ as I don't see how $S$ is an interval.
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 6:38










          • $begingroup$
            If you extend the equality from intervals to measurable sets you can then take $A=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 22 at 6:40










          • $begingroup$
            Though this is true, that breaks the statement of the question and circumvents the basis of the question. The subintervals are there to illustrated uniform distribution of points across the unit interval
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 7:24


















          • $begingroup$
            I understand your point, however, I'm inclined to believe that $S$ cannot equal $A$ as I don't see how $S$ is an interval.
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 6:38










          • $begingroup$
            If you extend the equality from intervals to measurable sets you can then take $A=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 22 at 6:40










          • $begingroup$
            Though this is true, that breaks the statement of the question and circumvents the basis of the question. The subintervals are there to illustrated uniform distribution of points across the unit interval
            $endgroup$
            – David G.
            Mar 22 at 7:24
















          $begingroup$
          I understand your point, however, I'm inclined to believe that $S$ cannot equal $A$ as I don't see how $S$ is an interval.
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 6:38




          $begingroup$
          I understand your point, however, I'm inclined to believe that $S$ cannot equal $A$ as I don't see how $S$ is an interval.
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 6:38












          $begingroup$
          If you extend the equality from intervals to measurable sets you can then take $A=S$.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 22 at 6:40




          $begingroup$
          If you extend the equality from intervals to measurable sets you can then take $A=S$.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 22 at 6:40












          $begingroup$
          Though this is true, that breaks the statement of the question and circumvents the basis of the question. The subintervals are there to illustrated uniform distribution of points across the unit interval
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 7:24




          $begingroup$
          Though this is true, that breaks the statement of the question and circumvents the basis of the question. The subintervals are there to illustrated uniform distribution of points across the unit interval
          $endgroup$
          – David G.
          Mar 22 at 7:24


















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