Proving convergence/divergence of this series?hard time with series convergence or divergenceSeries...

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Proving convergence/divergence of this series?


hard time with series convergence or divergenceSeries convergence/divergenceProving uniform convergence of this seriesProving convergence/divergence for $p$-seriesProving the convergence/divergence of a seemingly oscillating seriesFinding the convergence/divergence of a seriesConvergence of series/absolute convergenceShow the convergence or divergence of seriesDivergent infinite series $n!e^n/n^n$ - simpler proof of divergence?Help with convergence tests for series













3












$begingroup$


$$sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(k!)}{(k+1)!+2^k}$$



Anyone know how to show that this series converges or diverges? I've tried multiple tests and nothing seems to be working. Any help would be amazing!










share|cite|improve this question









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Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    $$sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(k!)}{(k+1)!+2^k}$$



    Anyone know how to show that this series converges or diverges? I've tried multiple tests and nothing seems to be working. Any help would be amazing!










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3


      3



      $begingroup$


      $$sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(k!)}{(k+1)!+2^k}$$



      Anyone know how to show that this series converges or diverges? I've tried multiple tests and nothing seems to be working. Any help would be amazing!










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      $$sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(k!)}{(k+1)!+2^k}$$



      Anyone know how to show that this series converges or diverges? I've tried multiple tests and nothing seems to be working. Any help would be amazing!







      sequences-and-series convergence






      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited yesterday









      mrtaurho

      5,74551540




      5,74551540






      New contributor




      Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      asked yesterday









      Bob JonesBob Jones

      192




      192




      New contributor




      Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.





      New contributor





      Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      Bob Jones is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Since $(k+1)!$ grows faster than $2^k$ there exist some $K_0$ so that the denominator is equivalent to $(k+1)!$ for $forall kgeq K_0$ then:$sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} simsum_{K_0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrowinfty$



          Edit: I'll clarify my steps as suggested.



          $(1)$ $k!ge 2^k$ for big enough k



          Proof:

          Consider $f_k=dfrac{k!}{2^k}$; the Limit $displaystyle{lim_{krightarrowinfty}dfrac{f_{k+1}}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}dfrac{k+1}{2}=infty};$

          By the ratio test $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}f_k=infty}$

          So by the precise definition of a limit there exist some $K_0inmathbb{N}$ so that for all $kge K_0Rightarrow k!ge2^k$




          We also get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{k!}=0}$



          (2) "Let $a_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k}$and $b_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!}$ then if $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=L, Lin(0,infty)}$ by the limit comparision test the series associated to $a_k,b_k$ either both diverge or both converge."



          Proof that the limit exist:

          $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{(k+1)!}{(k+1)!+2^k}=lim_{ktoinfty}cfrac{1}{1+dfrac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=dfrac{1}{displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}1+frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}}}$.



          $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{k+1}frac{2^k}{k!}=0cdot0=0$



          We get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=1}$



          So by the limit comparision test:
          $$sum_{K_0}^{infty}b_k=sum_{K_0}^{infty}dfrac{1}{k+1}=inftyRightarrow sum_{K_0}^{infty}a_k=infty$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Please edit denominator of fraction in series. I think you must explain more about this approximation
            $endgroup$
            – BarzanHayati
            yesterday










          • $begingroup$
            $sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} < sum_{0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrow$. But how to conclude that it would be a divergent series?
            $endgroup$
            – BarzanHayati
            yesterday












          • $begingroup$
            I edited my answer, I hope it is clear now.
            $endgroup$
            – Sebastian Cor
            yesterday



















          0












          $begingroup$

          I suggest to divide the numerator and the denominator of the fraction by $k!$:
          $$
          frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} = frac{1}{k+1 + frac{2^k}{k!}} geq frac{1}{k+3} ,
          $$

          since $frac{2^k}{k!} leq 2$ for all positive integer $k$.



          Thus
          $$
          sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} geq sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k+3} .
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            Since $(k+1)!$ grows faster than $2^k$ there exist some $K_0$ so that the denominator is equivalent to $(k+1)!$ for $forall kgeq K_0$ then:$sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} simsum_{K_0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrowinfty$



            Edit: I'll clarify my steps as suggested.



            $(1)$ $k!ge 2^k$ for big enough k



            Proof:

            Consider $f_k=dfrac{k!}{2^k}$; the Limit $displaystyle{lim_{krightarrowinfty}dfrac{f_{k+1}}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}dfrac{k+1}{2}=infty};$

            By the ratio test $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}f_k=infty}$

            So by the precise definition of a limit there exist some $K_0inmathbb{N}$ so that for all $kge K_0Rightarrow k!ge2^k$




            We also get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{k!}=0}$



            (2) "Let $a_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k}$and $b_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!}$ then if $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=L, Lin(0,infty)}$ by the limit comparision test the series associated to $a_k,b_k$ either both diverge or both converge."



            Proof that the limit exist:

            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{(k+1)!}{(k+1)!+2^k}=lim_{ktoinfty}cfrac{1}{1+dfrac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=dfrac{1}{displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}1+frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}}}$.



            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{k+1}frac{2^k}{k!}=0cdot0=0$



            We get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=1}$



            So by the limit comparision test:
            $$sum_{K_0}^{infty}b_k=sum_{K_0}^{infty}dfrac{1}{k+1}=inftyRightarrow sum_{K_0}^{infty}a_k=infty$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Please edit denominator of fraction in series. I think you must explain more about this approximation
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday










            • $begingroup$
              $sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} < sum_{0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrow$. But how to conclude that it would be a divergent series?
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday












            • $begingroup$
              I edited my answer, I hope it is clear now.
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastian Cor
              yesterday
















            1












            $begingroup$

            Since $(k+1)!$ grows faster than $2^k$ there exist some $K_0$ so that the denominator is equivalent to $(k+1)!$ for $forall kgeq K_0$ then:$sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} simsum_{K_0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrowinfty$



            Edit: I'll clarify my steps as suggested.



            $(1)$ $k!ge 2^k$ for big enough k



            Proof:

            Consider $f_k=dfrac{k!}{2^k}$; the Limit $displaystyle{lim_{krightarrowinfty}dfrac{f_{k+1}}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}dfrac{k+1}{2}=infty};$

            By the ratio test $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}f_k=infty}$

            So by the precise definition of a limit there exist some $K_0inmathbb{N}$ so that for all $kge K_0Rightarrow k!ge2^k$




            We also get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{k!}=0}$



            (2) "Let $a_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k}$and $b_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!}$ then if $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=L, Lin(0,infty)}$ by the limit comparision test the series associated to $a_k,b_k$ either both diverge or both converge."



            Proof that the limit exist:

            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{(k+1)!}{(k+1)!+2^k}=lim_{ktoinfty}cfrac{1}{1+dfrac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=dfrac{1}{displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}1+frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}}}$.



            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{k+1}frac{2^k}{k!}=0cdot0=0$



            We get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=1}$



            So by the limit comparision test:
            $$sum_{K_0}^{infty}b_k=sum_{K_0}^{infty}dfrac{1}{k+1}=inftyRightarrow sum_{K_0}^{infty}a_k=infty$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Please edit denominator of fraction in series. I think you must explain more about this approximation
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday










            • $begingroup$
              $sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} < sum_{0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrow$. But how to conclude that it would be a divergent series?
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday












            • $begingroup$
              I edited my answer, I hope it is clear now.
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastian Cor
              yesterday














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            Since $(k+1)!$ grows faster than $2^k$ there exist some $K_0$ so that the denominator is equivalent to $(k+1)!$ for $forall kgeq K_0$ then:$sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} simsum_{K_0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrowinfty$



            Edit: I'll clarify my steps as suggested.



            $(1)$ $k!ge 2^k$ for big enough k



            Proof:

            Consider $f_k=dfrac{k!}{2^k}$; the Limit $displaystyle{lim_{krightarrowinfty}dfrac{f_{k+1}}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}dfrac{k+1}{2}=infty};$

            By the ratio test $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}f_k=infty}$

            So by the precise definition of a limit there exist some $K_0inmathbb{N}$ so that for all $kge K_0Rightarrow k!ge2^k$




            We also get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{k!}=0}$



            (2) "Let $a_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k}$and $b_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!}$ then if $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=L, Lin(0,infty)}$ by the limit comparision test the series associated to $a_k,b_k$ either both diverge or both converge."



            Proof that the limit exist:

            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{(k+1)!}{(k+1)!+2^k}=lim_{ktoinfty}cfrac{1}{1+dfrac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=dfrac{1}{displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}1+frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}}}$.



            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{k+1}frac{2^k}{k!}=0cdot0=0$



            We get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=1}$



            So by the limit comparision test:
            $$sum_{K_0}^{infty}b_k=sum_{K_0}^{infty}dfrac{1}{k+1}=inftyRightarrow sum_{K_0}^{infty}a_k=infty$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Since $(k+1)!$ grows faster than $2^k$ there exist some $K_0$ so that the denominator is equivalent to $(k+1)!$ for $forall kgeq K_0$ then:$sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} simsum_{K_0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrowinfty$



            Edit: I'll clarify my steps as suggested.



            $(1)$ $k!ge 2^k$ for big enough k



            Proof:

            Consider $f_k=dfrac{k!}{2^k}$; the Limit $displaystyle{lim_{krightarrowinfty}dfrac{f_{k+1}}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}dfrac{k+1}{2}=infty};$

            By the ratio test $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}f_k=infty}$

            So by the precise definition of a limit there exist some $K_0inmathbb{N}$ so that for all $kge K_0Rightarrow k!ge2^k$




            We also get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{f_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{k!}=0}$



            (2) "Let $a_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k}$and $b_k=dfrac{k!}{(k+1)!}$ then if $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=L, Lin(0,infty)}$ by the limit comparision test the series associated to $a_k,b_k$ either both diverge or both converge."



            Proof that the limit exist:

            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{(k+1)!}{(k+1)!+2^k}=lim_{ktoinfty}cfrac{1}{1+dfrac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=dfrac{1}{displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}1+frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}}}$.



            $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{2^k}{(k+1)!}}=lim_{ktoinfty}frac{1}{k+1}frac{2^k}{k!}=0cdot0=0$



            We get that $displaystyle{lim_{ktoinfty}frac{a_k}{b_k}=1}$



            So by the limit comparision test:
            $$sum_{K_0}^{infty}b_k=sum_{K_0}^{infty}dfrac{1}{k+1}=inftyRightarrow sum_{K_0}^{infty}a_k=infty$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 2 hours ago









            BarzanHayati

            1458




            1458










            answered yesterday









            Sebastian CorSebastian Cor

            948




            948












            • $begingroup$
              Please edit denominator of fraction in series. I think you must explain more about this approximation
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday










            • $begingroup$
              $sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} < sum_{0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrow$. But how to conclude that it would be a divergent series?
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday












            • $begingroup$
              I edited my answer, I hope it is clear now.
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastian Cor
              yesterday


















            • $begingroup$
              Please edit denominator of fraction in series. I think you must explain more about this approximation
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday










            • $begingroup$
              $sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} < sum_{0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrow$. But how to conclude that it would be a divergent series?
              $endgroup$
              – BarzanHayati
              yesterday












            • $begingroup$
              I edited my answer, I hope it is clear now.
              $endgroup$
              – Sebastian Cor
              yesterday
















            $begingroup$
            Please edit denominator of fraction in series. I think you must explain more about this approximation
            $endgroup$
            – BarzanHayati
            yesterday




            $begingroup$
            Please edit denominator of fraction in series. I think you must explain more about this approximation
            $endgroup$
            – BarzanHayati
            yesterday












            $begingroup$
            $sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} < sum_{0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrow$. But how to conclude that it would be a divergent series?
            $endgroup$
            – BarzanHayati
            yesterday






            $begingroup$
            $sum_0^inftyfrac{k!}{(k+1)!+2^k} < sum_{0}^infty frac{1}{k+1}rightarrow$. But how to conclude that it would be a divergent series?
            $endgroup$
            – BarzanHayati
            yesterday














            $begingroup$
            I edited my answer, I hope it is clear now.
            $endgroup$
            – Sebastian Cor
            yesterday




            $begingroup$
            I edited my answer, I hope it is clear now.
            $endgroup$
            – Sebastian Cor
            yesterday











            0












            $begingroup$

            I suggest to divide the numerator and the denominator of the fraction by $k!$:
            $$
            frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} = frac{1}{k+1 + frac{2^k}{k!}} geq frac{1}{k+3} ,
            $$

            since $frac{2^k}{k!} leq 2$ for all positive integer $k$.



            Thus
            $$
            sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} geq sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k+3} .
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              I suggest to divide the numerator and the denominator of the fraction by $k!$:
              $$
              frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} = frac{1}{k+1 + frac{2^k}{k!}} geq frac{1}{k+3} ,
              $$

              since $frac{2^k}{k!} leq 2$ for all positive integer $k$.



              Thus
              $$
              sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} geq sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k+3} .
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                I suggest to divide the numerator and the denominator of the fraction by $k!$:
                $$
                frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} = frac{1}{k+1 + frac{2^k}{k!}} geq frac{1}{k+3} ,
                $$

                since $frac{2^k}{k!} leq 2$ for all positive integer $k$.



                Thus
                $$
                sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} geq sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k+3} .
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                I suggest to divide the numerator and the denominator of the fraction by $k!$:
                $$
                frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} = frac{1}{k+1 + frac{2^k}{k!}} geq frac{1}{k+3} ,
                $$

                since $frac{2^k}{k!} leq 2$ for all positive integer $k$.



                Thus
                $$
                sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{k!}{(k+1)! + 2^k} geq sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k+3} .
                $$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 23 hours ago









                ErtxiemErtxiem

                585




                585






















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