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Arbitrariness of an arbitrary function after an operation


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$begingroup$


Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?



My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.










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New contributor




Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • $begingroup$
    $g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
    $endgroup$
    – Kim Leung
    13 hours ago
















0












$begingroup$


Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?



My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    $g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
    $endgroup$
    – Kim Leung
    13 hours ago














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?



My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?



My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.







functions






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 13 hours ago







Kim Leung













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Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 17 hours ago









Kim LeungKim Leung

11




11




New contributor




Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Kim Leung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • $begingroup$
    $g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
    $endgroup$
    – Kim Leung
    13 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    $g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
    $endgroup$
    – Kim Leung
    13 hours ago
















$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago




$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago












$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago




$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago










1 Answer
1






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0












$begingroup$

As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    0












    $begingroup$

    As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
    range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
      range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
        range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
        range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 16 hours ago









        Robert IsraelRobert Israel

        326k23215469




        326k23215469






















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