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Arbitrariness of an arbitrary function after an operation
Connecting functional identity of a function with its image setConstructing an iterative “signature” functionIs any real-valued function in physics somehow continuous?Precision in $f : A to B$ notationTangents and roots to simultaneous equations.How do we formally “identify” objects using isomorphisms?Domain of function $y$Notation for function spaces“Recursive definitions” in Tao's Analysis Vol IIs there a better definition for a function?
$begingroup$
Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?
My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.
functions
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?
My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.
functions
New contributor
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago
$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?
My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.
functions
New contributor
$endgroup$
Let’s say there is an arbitrary function f(x). Now I define another function g(x) = O(f(x)), where O is a mathematical operation (addition, inverse, derivative...whatever). My question is, can g(x) still be regarded as an “arbitrary function”?
My first thought is a no, because g(x) has to satisfy the mathematical operation as stated (i.e. it has to meet certain conditions/restrictions). But later I remember seeing statements such as “an arbitrary REAL number” (i.e. “the number has to be real” is a condition to be met), and now I’m confused.
functions
functions
New contributor
New contributor
edited 13 hours ago
Kim Leung
New contributor
asked 17 hours ago
Kim LeungKim Leung
11
11
New contributor
New contributor
$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago
$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago
$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago
$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago
$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago
$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago
$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.
$endgroup$
As hinted by Minus One-Twelfth, the range of $g$ must be contained in the range of $O$. But that is the only restriction. That is, for any function $h$ on some domain $A$ whose
range is contained in the range of $O$, there is a function $f$ from $A$ into the domain of $O$ such that $h(x) = O(f(x))$ for all $x in A$. Namely, for each $x in A$ we let $f(x)$ be some $y$ such that $O(y) = h(x)$.
answered 16 hours ago
Robert IsraelRobert Israel
326k23215469
326k23215469
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Kim Leung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kim Leung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kim Leung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kim Leung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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$begingroup$
$g$ may not be completely arbitrary anymore. For example, if the "O" is the squaring operation, so $g(x) = f(x)^2$, then $g(x)$ is now always non-negative (assuming $f$ is real-valued).
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
17 hours ago
$begingroup$
Thanks for the answers first. So does it mean that a function can still be regarded as “arbitrary” even if there are restrictions on it? Somehow this looks contradictory to me....
$endgroup$
– Kim Leung
13 hours ago