Why is, for a group scheme of finite type, “smooth” (resp. irreducible) equivalent to “geometrically reduced” (resp. geometrically irreducible)?Definition of abelian varietyPro-affine varieties over a local fieldIs the pushout of smooth varieties along a smooth closed subvariety again a variety?If $X,Y$ are regular and of finite type over $S$, can $Xtimes _S Y$ be embedded into a regular $S$-scheme? Conjugate surfaces: informations about the orbitsExamples of étale covers of arithmetic surfaces$Bbb A^1$-Localisation of Schemes, and $Bbb A^1$-Rigid SchemesAlbanese variety over non-perfect fieldsGalois invariant line bundles on a product of varietiesschemes vs varieties in abelian varieties and maximal subscheme where line bundle is trivial

Why is, for a group scheme of finite type, “smooth” (resp. irreducible) equivalent to “geometrically reduced” (resp. geometrically irreducible)?


Definition of abelian varietyPro-affine varieties over a local fieldIs the pushout of smooth varieties along a smooth closed subvariety again a variety?If $X,Y$ are regular and of finite type over $S$, can $Xtimes _S Y$ be embedded into a regular $S$-scheme? Conjugate surfaces: informations about the orbitsExamples of étale covers of arithmetic surfaces$Bbb A^1$-Localisation of Schemes, and $Bbb A^1$-Rigid SchemesAlbanese variety over non-perfect fieldsGalois invariant line bundles on a product of varietiesschemes vs varieties in abelian varieties and maximal subscheme where line bundle is trivial













8












$begingroup$


I have some questions about two statements from Bosch's "Algebraic Geometry and Commutative Algebra" about algebraic varieties (page 479). Since I still don't have the permission to add images I quote the relevant excerpt:




...The notion of properness has been introduced in 9.5/4. It means that the
structural morphism $p: A to Spec(K)$ is of finite type, separated, and universally
closed. For the property of smoothness see 8.5/1. It follows from 8.5/15
in conjunction with 2.4/19 that all stalks $mathcalO_A,x$ of a smooth $K$-group scheme $A$
are integral domains. Since abelian varieties are required to be irreducible, they
give rise to integral schemes. Also let us mention that for $K$-group schemes of
finite type smooth is equivalent to geometrically reduced
, which means that all
stalks of the structure sheaf of $A×_K barK$ are reduced. In addition, let us point out
that for $K$-group schemes of finite type the property irreducible can be checked
after base change with $barK/K$
so that we may replace irreducible by geometrically
irreducible...




We fix an abelian variety $A$ over field $K$. By definition an abelian variety over $K$ is a proper smooth $K$-group scheme that is irreducible.



Following two questions:



  1. Why is for a $K$-group scheme of finite type smooth equivalent to geometrically reduced?


  2. Why under same conditions as in 1. (so $K$-group scheme of finite type) the property irreducible is equivlaent to geometrically irreducible?


Remark: Here I previously asked this question in MSE: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3136827/abelian-varieties










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of changing the title of your question.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    8 hours ago















8












$begingroup$


I have some questions about two statements from Bosch's "Algebraic Geometry and Commutative Algebra" about algebraic varieties (page 479). Since I still don't have the permission to add images I quote the relevant excerpt:




...The notion of properness has been introduced in 9.5/4. It means that the
structural morphism $p: A to Spec(K)$ is of finite type, separated, and universally
closed. For the property of smoothness see 8.5/1. It follows from 8.5/15
in conjunction with 2.4/19 that all stalks $mathcalO_A,x$ of a smooth $K$-group scheme $A$
are integral domains. Since abelian varieties are required to be irreducible, they
give rise to integral schemes. Also let us mention that for $K$-group schemes of
finite type smooth is equivalent to geometrically reduced
, which means that all
stalks of the structure sheaf of $A×_K barK$ are reduced. In addition, let us point out
that for $K$-group schemes of finite type the property irreducible can be checked
after base change with $barK/K$
so that we may replace irreducible by geometrically
irreducible...




We fix an abelian variety $A$ over field $K$. By definition an abelian variety over $K$ is a proper smooth $K$-group scheme that is irreducible.



Following two questions:



  1. Why is for a $K$-group scheme of finite type smooth equivalent to geometrically reduced?


  2. Why under same conditions as in 1. (so $K$-group scheme of finite type) the property irreducible is equivlaent to geometrically irreducible?


Remark: Here I previously asked this question in MSE: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3136827/abelian-varieties










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of changing the title of your question.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    8 hours ago













8












8








8





$begingroup$


I have some questions about two statements from Bosch's "Algebraic Geometry and Commutative Algebra" about algebraic varieties (page 479). Since I still don't have the permission to add images I quote the relevant excerpt:




...The notion of properness has been introduced in 9.5/4. It means that the
structural morphism $p: A to Spec(K)$ is of finite type, separated, and universally
closed. For the property of smoothness see 8.5/1. It follows from 8.5/15
in conjunction with 2.4/19 that all stalks $mathcalO_A,x$ of a smooth $K$-group scheme $A$
are integral domains. Since abelian varieties are required to be irreducible, they
give rise to integral schemes. Also let us mention that for $K$-group schemes of
finite type smooth is equivalent to geometrically reduced
, which means that all
stalks of the structure sheaf of $A×_K barK$ are reduced. In addition, let us point out
that for $K$-group schemes of finite type the property irreducible can be checked
after base change with $barK/K$
so that we may replace irreducible by geometrically
irreducible...




We fix an abelian variety $A$ over field $K$. By definition an abelian variety over $K$ is a proper smooth $K$-group scheme that is irreducible.



Following two questions:



  1. Why is for a $K$-group scheme of finite type smooth equivalent to geometrically reduced?


  2. Why under same conditions as in 1. (so $K$-group scheme of finite type) the property irreducible is equivlaent to geometrically irreducible?


Remark: Here I previously asked this question in MSE: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3136827/abelian-varieties










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




I have some questions about two statements from Bosch's "Algebraic Geometry and Commutative Algebra" about algebraic varieties (page 479). Since I still don't have the permission to add images I quote the relevant excerpt:




...The notion of properness has been introduced in 9.5/4. It means that the
structural morphism $p: A to Spec(K)$ is of finite type, separated, and universally
closed. For the property of smoothness see 8.5/1. It follows from 8.5/15
in conjunction with 2.4/19 that all stalks $mathcalO_A,x$ of a smooth $K$-group scheme $A$
are integral domains. Since abelian varieties are required to be irreducible, they
give rise to integral schemes. Also let us mention that for $K$-group schemes of
finite type smooth is equivalent to geometrically reduced
, which means that all
stalks of the structure sheaf of $A×_K barK$ are reduced. In addition, let us point out
that for $K$-group schemes of finite type the property irreducible can be checked
after base change with $barK/K$
so that we may replace irreducible by geometrically
irreducible...




We fix an abelian variety $A$ over field $K$. By definition an abelian variety over $K$ is a proper smooth $K$-group scheme that is irreducible.



Following two questions:



  1. Why is for a $K$-group scheme of finite type smooth equivalent to geometrically reduced?


  2. Why under same conditions as in 1. (so $K$-group scheme of finite type) the property irreducible is equivlaent to geometrically irreducible?


Remark: Here I previously asked this question in MSE: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3136827/abelian-varieties







ag.algebraic-geometry abelian-varieties schemes






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 8 hours ago









Qfwfq

10.2k1083170




10.2k1083170






New contributor




Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 9 hours ago









Karl_PeterKarl_Peter

463




463




New contributor




Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Karl_Peter is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of changing the title of your question.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    8 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of changing the title of your question.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    8 hours ago















$begingroup$
I took the liberty of changing the title of your question.
$endgroup$
– Piotr Achinger
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
I took the liberty of changing the title of your question.
$endgroup$
– Piotr Achinger
8 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Let $G/K$ be a group scheme of finite type.



  1. $G/K$ is smooth if and only if $bar G / bar K$ is smooth. Suppose $bar G$ is reduced, then it has a smooth $bar K$-point $x$ (because we are over an algebraically closed field). But $bar G(bar K)$ acts transitively on itself, so now every closed point of $bar G$ is smooth, so $bar G$ is smooth. (And of course if $bar G$ is smooth then it is reduced.)


  2. The point is that $G$ comes with a section, the neutral element $ein G(K)$. Suppose that $bar G$ is reducible, then since $bar G^rm red$ is reduced and hence smooth, we see that $bar G$ is disconnected. If $bar G^circ$ is the connected component of the neutral element $e$, then since the Galois group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts on $bar G$ preserving $e$, it has to preserve $bar G^circ$, and so $bar G^circ$ descends to give a component of $G$, so $G$ is disconnected.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your answer. One penible question: When you talk about the $rm Gal(bar K/K)$-action on $bar G = G otimes barK$ do you implicitely mean the action on "points" $barG(barK)= Hom(barK, barG)$ via composing $phi mapsto phi circ g$ for a $g in rm Gal(bar K/K)$ or the action via "base change" namely that $g$ induces automorphism on $barG$ via $id otimes g$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    7 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Karl_Peter I think the latter action induces the former on $bar K$-points. Here it is enough to say that the profinite group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts continuously on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$ of $bar G$ (or just the subspace of closed points $bar G(bar K)$) and the quotient space is identified with $|G|$.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    But what is concretely the "canonical" action of $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    5 hours ago










Your Answer





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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









5












$begingroup$

Let $G/K$ be a group scheme of finite type.



  1. $G/K$ is smooth if and only if $bar G / bar K$ is smooth. Suppose $bar G$ is reduced, then it has a smooth $bar K$-point $x$ (because we are over an algebraically closed field). But $bar G(bar K)$ acts transitively on itself, so now every closed point of $bar G$ is smooth, so $bar G$ is smooth. (And of course if $bar G$ is smooth then it is reduced.)


  2. The point is that $G$ comes with a section, the neutral element $ein G(K)$. Suppose that $bar G$ is reducible, then since $bar G^rm red$ is reduced and hence smooth, we see that $bar G$ is disconnected. If $bar G^circ$ is the connected component of the neutral element $e$, then since the Galois group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts on $bar G$ preserving $e$, it has to preserve $bar G^circ$, and so $bar G^circ$ descends to give a component of $G$, so $G$ is disconnected.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your answer. One penible question: When you talk about the $rm Gal(bar K/K)$-action on $bar G = G otimes barK$ do you implicitely mean the action on "points" $barG(barK)= Hom(barK, barG)$ via composing $phi mapsto phi circ g$ for a $g in rm Gal(bar K/K)$ or the action via "base change" namely that $g$ induces automorphism on $barG$ via $id otimes g$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    7 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Karl_Peter I think the latter action induces the former on $bar K$-points. Here it is enough to say that the profinite group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts continuously on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$ of $bar G$ (or just the subspace of closed points $bar G(bar K)$) and the quotient space is identified with $|G|$.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    But what is concretely the "canonical" action of $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    5 hours ago















5












$begingroup$

Let $G/K$ be a group scheme of finite type.



  1. $G/K$ is smooth if and only if $bar G / bar K$ is smooth. Suppose $bar G$ is reduced, then it has a smooth $bar K$-point $x$ (because we are over an algebraically closed field). But $bar G(bar K)$ acts transitively on itself, so now every closed point of $bar G$ is smooth, so $bar G$ is smooth. (And of course if $bar G$ is smooth then it is reduced.)


  2. The point is that $G$ comes with a section, the neutral element $ein G(K)$. Suppose that $bar G$ is reducible, then since $bar G^rm red$ is reduced and hence smooth, we see that $bar G$ is disconnected. If $bar G^circ$ is the connected component of the neutral element $e$, then since the Galois group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts on $bar G$ preserving $e$, it has to preserve $bar G^circ$, and so $bar G^circ$ descends to give a component of $G$, so $G$ is disconnected.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your answer. One penible question: When you talk about the $rm Gal(bar K/K)$-action on $bar G = G otimes barK$ do you implicitely mean the action on "points" $barG(barK)= Hom(barK, barG)$ via composing $phi mapsto phi circ g$ for a $g in rm Gal(bar K/K)$ or the action via "base change" namely that $g$ induces automorphism on $barG$ via $id otimes g$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    7 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Karl_Peter I think the latter action induces the former on $bar K$-points. Here it is enough to say that the profinite group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts continuously on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$ of $bar G$ (or just the subspace of closed points $bar G(bar K)$) and the quotient space is identified with $|G|$.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    But what is concretely the "canonical" action of $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    5 hours ago













5












5








5





$begingroup$

Let $G/K$ be a group scheme of finite type.



  1. $G/K$ is smooth if and only if $bar G / bar K$ is smooth. Suppose $bar G$ is reduced, then it has a smooth $bar K$-point $x$ (because we are over an algebraically closed field). But $bar G(bar K)$ acts transitively on itself, so now every closed point of $bar G$ is smooth, so $bar G$ is smooth. (And of course if $bar G$ is smooth then it is reduced.)


  2. The point is that $G$ comes with a section, the neutral element $ein G(K)$. Suppose that $bar G$ is reducible, then since $bar G^rm red$ is reduced and hence smooth, we see that $bar G$ is disconnected. If $bar G^circ$ is the connected component of the neutral element $e$, then since the Galois group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts on $bar G$ preserving $e$, it has to preserve $bar G^circ$, and so $bar G^circ$ descends to give a component of $G$, so $G$ is disconnected.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Let $G/K$ be a group scheme of finite type.



  1. $G/K$ is smooth if and only if $bar G / bar K$ is smooth. Suppose $bar G$ is reduced, then it has a smooth $bar K$-point $x$ (because we are over an algebraically closed field). But $bar G(bar K)$ acts transitively on itself, so now every closed point of $bar G$ is smooth, so $bar G$ is smooth. (And of course if $bar G$ is smooth then it is reduced.)


  2. The point is that $G$ comes with a section, the neutral element $ein G(K)$. Suppose that $bar G$ is reducible, then since $bar G^rm red$ is reduced and hence smooth, we see that $bar G$ is disconnected. If $bar G^circ$ is the connected component of the neutral element $e$, then since the Galois group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts on $bar G$ preserving $e$, it has to preserve $bar G^circ$, and so $bar G^circ$ descends to give a component of $G$, so $G$ is disconnected.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 9 hours ago









Piotr AchingerPiotr Achinger

8,37712853




8,37712853











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your answer. One penible question: When you talk about the $rm Gal(bar K/K)$-action on $bar G = G otimes barK$ do you implicitely mean the action on "points" $barG(barK)= Hom(barK, barG)$ via composing $phi mapsto phi circ g$ for a $g in rm Gal(bar K/K)$ or the action via "base change" namely that $g$ induces automorphism on $barG$ via $id otimes g$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    7 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Karl_Peter I think the latter action induces the former on $bar K$-points. Here it is enough to say that the profinite group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts continuously on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$ of $bar G$ (or just the subspace of closed points $bar G(bar K)$) and the quotient space is identified with $|G|$.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    But what is concretely the "canonical" action of $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    5 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your answer. One penible question: When you talk about the $rm Gal(bar K/K)$-action on $bar G = G otimes barK$ do you implicitely mean the action on "points" $barG(barK)= Hom(barK, barG)$ via composing $phi mapsto phi circ g$ for a $g in rm Gal(bar K/K)$ or the action via "base change" namely that $g$ induces automorphism on $barG$ via $id otimes g$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    7 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @Karl_Peter I think the latter action induces the former on $bar K$-points. Here it is enough to say that the profinite group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts continuously on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$ of $bar G$ (or just the subspace of closed points $bar G(bar K)$) and the quotient space is identified with $|G|$.
    $endgroup$
    – Piotr Achinger
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    But what is concretely the "canonical" action of $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$?
    $endgroup$
    – Karl_Peter
    5 hours ago















$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. One penible question: When you talk about the $rm Gal(bar K/K)$-action on $bar G = G otimes barK$ do you implicitely mean the action on "points" $barG(barK)= Hom(barK, barG)$ via composing $phi mapsto phi circ g$ for a $g in rm Gal(bar K/K)$ or the action via "base change" namely that $g$ induces automorphism on $barG$ via $id otimes g$?
$endgroup$
– Karl_Peter
7 hours ago





$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. One penible question: When you talk about the $rm Gal(bar K/K)$-action on $bar G = G otimes barK$ do you implicitely mean the action on "points" $barG(barK)= Hom(barK, barG)$ via composing $phi mapsto phi circ g$ for a $g in rm Gal(bar K/K)$ or the action via "base change" namely that $g$ induces automorphism on $barG$ via $id otimes g$?
$endgroup$
– Karl_Peter
7 hours ago













$begingroup$
@Karl_Peter I think the latter action induces the former on $bar K$-points. Here it is enough to say that the profinite group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts continuously on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$ of $bar G$ (or just the subspace of closed points $bar G(bar K)$) and the quotient space is identified with $|G|$.
$endgroup$
– Piotr Achinger
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
@Karl_Peter I think the latter action induces the former on $bar K$-points. Here it is enough to say that the profinite group $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ acts continuously on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$ of $bar G$ (or just the subspace of closed points $bar G(bar K)$) and the quotient space is identified with $|G|$.
$endgroup$
– Piotr Achinger
5 hours ago












$begingroup$
But what is concretely the "canonical" action of $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$?
$endgroup$
– Karl_Peter
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
But what is concretely the "canonical" action of $rm Gal(bar K/K)$ on the underlying topological space $|bar G|$?
$endgroup$
– Karl_Peter
5 hours ago










Karl_Peter is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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Karl_Peter is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.












Karl_Peter is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.











Karl_Peter is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.














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If gravity precedes the formation of a solar system, where did the mass come from that caused the gravity? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Where does the Solar System end?The defintion of star/planetary/solar systemSolar System formation, considering its and the universe's ageNaming of the planets of the solar systemEjected planets during the early stages of the formation of the Solar SystemWhy are some universal entities round and others are flat?Are the “extinct species” of meteorites originally from the “Barbarian” asteroids?Is the galaxy made of a nebula or the solar system?Are the planets Trappist-1 in the solar system?How is the term “solar system” defined? Could confirmation of a new planet lead to a change in this definition?