$H/K$ when $K$ is not a subgroup of $H$.Maximal normal subgroup not containing an elementCondition under...
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$H/K$ when $K$ is not a subgroup of $H$.
Maximal normal subgroup not containing an elementCondition under which $HK$ is a subgroupIs $U(1)$ a normal subgroup of $U(2)$ and does the question even make sense?Convincing normal subgroup proof?Example of A, B, G such that A is a normal subgroup of B, B is a normal subgroup of G, but A is not a normal subgroup of GExample for subgroups $H$ and $K$ where $HK = K H$ and neither $H$ nor $K$ is normal?When is $HK$ a subgroup?Group of order 35 must have a normal subgroup of order 5 or 7Finding normal subgroup $N$ in $G$, where $N$ has normal subgroup $H$. But $H$ is not a normal subgroup of $G$.Let $G$ be a group: Prove subgroup, prove that group $G$ does not exist with subgroups s.t…, find cardinality of subgroup intersection.
$begingroup$
Let $G$ be a group and $H$, $K$ ($K$ is normal) two subgroups of $G$ but neither $H$ is subgroup of $K$ nor $K$ is subgroup of $H$. What would be the problem with $H/K$? If I define for $x,y in H$ multiplication as $xKyK=xyK$ then it is well defined?
Suppose $aK=xK$ and $bK=yK$ so $a^{-1}x in K$ and $b^{-1}y in K$. Then $b^{-1}a^{-1}xy=b^{-1}yy^{-1}a^{-1}xy in K$. So the multiplication in $H/K$ is well defined no?
group-theory normal-subgroups quotient-spaces quotient-group
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $G$ be a group and $H$, $K$ ($K$ is normal) two subgroups of $G$ but neither $H$ is subgroup of $K$ nor $K$ is subgroup of $H$. What would be the problem with $H/K$? If I define for $x,y in H$ multiplication as $xKyK=xyK$ then it is well defined?
Suppose $aK=xK$ and $bK=yK$ so $a^{-1}x in K$ and $b^{-1}y in K$. Then $b^{-1}a^{-1}xy=b^{-1}yy^{-1}a^{-1}xy in K$. So the multiplication in $H/K$ is well defined no?
group-theory normal-subgroups quotient-spaces quotient-group
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
You're defining $H/K$ to be the set of cosets of $K$ of the form $hK$ with $h$ in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
14 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $G$ be a group and $H$, $K$ ($K$ is normal) two subgroups of $G$ but neither $H$ is subgroup of $K$ nor $K$ is subgroup of $H$. What would be the problem with $H/K$? If I define for $x,y in H$ multiplication as $xKyK=xyK$ then it is well defined?
Suppose $aK=xK$ and $bK=yK$ so $a^{-1}x in K$ and $b^{-1}y in K$. Then $b^{-1}a^{-1}xy=b^{-1}yy^{-1}a^{-1}xy in K$. So the multiplication in $H/K$ is well defined no?
group-theory normal-subgroups quotient-spaces quotient-group
$endgroup$
Let $G$ be a group and $H$, $K$ ($K$ is normal) two subgroups of $G$ but neither $H$ is subgroup of $K$ nor $K$ is subgroup of $H$. What would be the problem with $H/K$? If I define for $x,y in H$ multiplication as $xKyK=xyK$ then it is well defined?
Suppose $aK=xK$ and $bK=yK$ so $a^{-1}x in K$ and $b^{-1}y in K$. Then $b^{-1}a^{-1}xy=b^{-1}yy^{-1}a^{-1}xy in K$. So the multiplication in $H/K$ is well defined no?
group-theory normal-subgroups quotient-spaces quotient-group
group-theory normal-subgroups quotient-spaces quotient-group
edited 13 hours ago
user1729
17.4k64193
17.4k64193
asked 14 hours ago
roi_saumonroi_saumon
59438
59438
3
$begingroup$
You're defining $H/K$ to be the set of cosets of $K$ of the form $hK$ with $h$ in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
14 hours ago
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
You're defining $H/K$ to be the set of cosets of $K$ of the form $hK$ with $h$ in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
14 hours ago
3
3
$begingroup$
You're defining $H/K$ to be the set of cosets of $K$ of the form $hK$ with $h$ in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
You're defining $H/K$ to be the set of cosets of $K$ of the form $hK$ with $h$ in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
14 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is fine. What you are really defining is multiplication in $HK/K$, which is a subgroup of $G/K$. By the second isomorphism theorem, this is isomorphic to $H/(Hcap K) $.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can think of this in terms of homomorphisms. That is, by the first isomorphism theorem there exists a homomorphism $phi: Grightarrow overline{G}$ such that $kerphi=K$ (and, of course, $overline{G}$ is really just $G/K$). Then what you are after is $phi(H)$. (This has the benefit of "making sense", while $H/K$ is a slightly dubious concept as for the notation to make sense you really need $Kleq H$.)
All you are really doing is proving that multiplication in $phi(H)$ is well-defined. Which it is, as $phi$ is a homomorphism.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
This is fine. What you are really defining is multiplication in $HK/K$, which is a subgroup of $G/K$. By the second isomorphism theorem, this is isomorphic to $H/(Hcap K) $.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is fine. What you are really defining is multiplication in $HK/K$, which is a subgroup of $G/K$. By the second isomorphism theorem, this is isomorphic to $H/(Hcap K) $.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is fine. What you are really defining is multiplication in $HK/K$, which is a subgroup of $G/K$. By the second isomorphism theorem, this is isomorphic to $H/(Hcap K) $.
$endgroup$
This is fine. What you are really defining is multiplication in $HK/K$, which is a subgroup of $G/K$. By the second isomorphism theorem, this is isomorphic to $H/(Hcap K) $.
answered 14 hours ago
Matt SamuelMatt Samuel
38.8k63769
38.8k63769
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can think of this in terms of homomorphisms. That is, by the first isomorphism theorem there exists a homomorphism $phi: Grightarrow overline{G}$ such that $kerphi=K$ (and, of course, $overline{G}$ is really just $G/K$). Then what you are after is $phi(H)$. (This has the benefit of "making sense", while $H/K$ is a slightly dubious concept as for the notation to make sense you really need $Kleq H$.)
All you are really doing is proving that multiplication in $phi(H)$ is well-defined. Which it is, as $phi$ is a homomorphism.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can think of this in terms of homomorphisms. That is, by the first isomorphism theorem there exists a homomorphism $phi: Grightarrow overline{G}$ such that $kerphi=K$ (and, of course, $overline{G}$ is really just $G/K$). Then what you are after is $phi(H)$. (This has the benefit of "making sense", while $H/K$ is a slightly dubious concept as for the notation to make sense you really need $Kleq H$.)
All you are really doing is proving that multiplication in $phi(H)$ is well-defined. Which it is, as $phi$ is a homomorphism.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can think of this in terms of homomorphisms. That is, by the first isomorphism theorem there exists a homomorphism $phi: Grightarrow overline{G}$ such that $kerphi=K$ (and, of course, $overline{G}$ is really just $G/K$). Then what you are after is $phi(H)$. (This has the benefit of "making sense", while $H/K$ is a slightly dubious concept as for the notation to make sense you really need $Kleq H$.)
All you are really doing is proving that multiplication in $phi(H)$ is well-defined. Which it is, as $phi$ is a homomorphism.
$endgroup$
You can think of this in terms of homomorphisms. That is, by the first isomorphism theorem there exists a homomorphism $phi: Grightarrow overline{G}$ such that $kerphi=K$ (and, of course, $overline{G}$ is really just $G/K$). Then what you are after is $phi(H)$. (This has the benefit of "making sense", while $H/K$ is a slightly dubious concept as for the notation to make sense you really need $Kleq H$.)
All you are really doing is proving that multiplication in $phi(H)$ is well-defined. Which it is, as $phi$ is a homomorphism.
edited 13 hours ago
answered 13 hours ago
user1729user1729
17.4k64193
17.4k64193
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
You're defining $H/K$ to be the set of cosets of $K$ of the form $hK$ with $h$ in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
14 hours ago