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Orthogonal and unitary operators


Why aren't all real self-adjoint operators diagonal?Self - adjoint and Unitary operatorOrthogonal Projectors and OperatorsProof that Every Positive Operator on V has a Unique Positive Square RootAre self-adjoint / Hermitian operators necessarily orthogonal / unitary?self-adjoint / orthonormal basis of eigenvectors$U,T$ are self-adjoint with $TU=UT$, then there is orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of $T$ and $U$.Unitary and Orthogonal OperatorsFind a “canonical form” for the linear operators that are both self-adjoint and unitary in a finite-dimensional complex inner product space.Proving a linear involution on a finite dimensional inner product space $V$ over $mathbb{C}$ is a self adjoint operator.













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$begingroup$



1) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional real inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of $T$ with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is both self adjoint and orthogonal.



2) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional complex inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is unitary.




So my question is why doesnt a unitary operator have to be self-adjoint to have orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 but orthogonal operators have to?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Orthogonal operators could still be missing eigenvectors since they may have complex eigenvalues, for example a 90 degree rotation of a plane.
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 21:13
















0












$begingroup$



1) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional real inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of $T$ with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is both self adjoint and orthogonal.



2) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional complex inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is unitary.




So my question is why doesnt a unitary operator have to be self-adjoint to have orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 but orthogonal operators have to?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Orthogonal operators could still be missing eigenvectors since they may have complex eigenvalues, for example a 90 degree rotation of a plane.
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 21:13














0












0








0





$begingroup$



1) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional real inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of $T$ with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is both self adjoint and orthogonal.



2) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional complex inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is unitary.




So my question is why doesnt a unitary operator have to be self-adjoint to have orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 but orthogonal operators have to?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





1) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional real inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of $T$ with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is both self adjoint and orthogonal.



2) Theorem:



Let $T$ be a linear operator on a finite-dimensional complex inner product space $V$. Then $V$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with absolute value 1 if and only if $T$ is unitary.




So my question is why doesnt a unitary operator have to be self-adjoint to have orthonormal basis of eigenvectors with corresponding eigenvalues of absolute value 1 but orthogonal operators have to?







linear-algebra






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 14 at 20:41









Alan Muniz

2,61311030




2,61311030










asked Mar 14 at 20:30









StudentStudent

1




1












  • $begingroup$
    Orthogonal operators could still be missing eigenvectors since they may have complex eigenvalues, for example a 90 degree rotation of a plane.
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 21:13


















  • $begingroup$
    Orthogonal operators could still be missing eigenvectors since they may have complex eigenvalues, for example a 90 degree rotation of a plane.
    $endgroup$
    – Joppy
    Mar 14 at 21:13
















$begingroup$
Orthogonal operators could still be missing eigenvectors since they may have complex eigenvalues, for example a 90 degree rotation of a plane.
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 21:13




$begingroup$
Orthogonal operators could still be missing eigenvectors since they may have complex eigenvalues, for example a 90 degree rotation of a plane.
$endgroup$
– Joppy
Mar 14 at 21:13










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