Solve the equation $R^{2}frac{arccos(frac{h}{R})+frac{h}{R}}{2} = pi r^{2}$ for $R$Solving an equation with...
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Solve the equation $R^{2}frac{arccos(frac{h}{R})+frac{h}{R}}{2} = pi r^{2}$ for $R$
Solving an equation with $arccos(x)$ and $sin(arccos(x))$Express $arcsin(x)$ in terms of $arccos(x)$. Solve the equation 2 arctan x=arcsin x + arccos xSolve Sum of ArccosSolve algebraically and graphically: $arcsin(x) + arccosleft(frac{x}{2}right) = frac{5pi}{6}$Express $arccos x+ arccos left(frac{x}{2} +frac{sqrt{3}-3x^2}{2}right)$ in simplest formHow to solve $c arccos(x)=x$ for the $x$?Solve trigonometric equation with $arcsin$ and $arccos$Solving $arccos(frac{x}{r}) + arccos(frac{x cdot d}{r}) = frac{pi}{n}$What is the solution to equation $arccosleft(frac{x-a}{x}right) - frac{a}{sqrt{2xa - a^2}} = 0$?Inverse trigonometric equations $arcsin left(1-xright)+arccos left(frac{1}{3}right)=frac{pi }{2}$
$begingroup$
I have the following equation and I want to solve for $R$.
$$R^{2} left( frac{arccos left(frac{h}{R}right) + frac{h}{R}}{2} right) = pi r^{2}$$
trigonometry circle quadratics factoring
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have the following equation and I want to solve for $R$.
$$R^{2} left( frac{arccos left(frac{h}{R}right) + frac{h}{R}}{2} right) = pi r^{2}$$
trigonometry circle quadratics factoring
New contributor
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
While not foolproof, usually if WolframAlpha doesn't return an answer, it's an indication that it may well not be possible without something rather elegant or convoluted. It seems to be the case here; you might have to resort to numerical approximation methods. (Wolfram: goo.gl/kwehDo)
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have the following equation and I want to solve for $R$.
$$R^{2} left( frac{arccos left(frac{h}{R}right) + frac{h}{R}}{2} right) = pi r^{2}$$
trigonometry circle quadratics factoring
New contributor
$endgroup$
I have the following equation and I want to solve for $R$.
$$R^{2} left( frac{arccos left(frac{h}{R}right) + frac{h}{R}}{2} right) = pi r^{2}$$
trigonometry circle quadratics factoring
trigonometry circle quadratics factoring
New contributor
New contributor
edited yesterday
Rodrigo de Azevedo
13.1k41960
13.1k41960
New contributor
asked yesterday
Mariksel AzemajMariksel Azemaj
103
103
New contributor
New contributor
1
$begingroup$
While not foolproof, usually if WolframAlpha doesn't return an answer, it's an indication that it may well not be possible without something rather elegant or convoluted. It seems to be the case here; you might have to resort to numerical approximation methods. (Wolfram: goo.gl/kwehDo)
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
While not foolproof, usually if WolframAlpha doesn't return an answer, it's an indication that it may well not be possible without something rather elegant or convoluted. It seems to be the case here; you might have to resort to numerical approximation methods. (Wolfram: goo.gl/kwehDo)
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
While not foolproof, usually if WolframAlpha doesn't return an answer, it's an indication that it may well not be possible without something rather elegant or convoluted. It seems to be the case here; you might have to resort to numerical approximation methods. (Wolfram: goo.gl/kwehDo)
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
$begingroup$
While not foolproof, usually if WolframAlpha doesn't return an answer, it's an indication that it may well not be possible without something rather elegant or convoluted. It seems to be the case here; you might have to resort to numerical approximation methods. (Wolfram: goo.gl/kwehDo)
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
As said in comments, this is a transcendental equation and you cannot expect analytical solutions and then some numerical method would be required.
We can make the equation looking nicer using $R=frac h x$ and $a=frac{pi r^2}{h^2} $which makes
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=0$$ and the solution is the intersetion of $f(x)=xcos ^{-1}(x)$ with $g(x)=ax^2$. There is only one solution to the equation provided $a geq 1$ and, for sure, the solution is in $[0,1]$.
For sure, if $a$ is large (that is to say $x$ small), you could use Taylor expansion to get
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=frac{pi }{2}-a x^2-frac{x^3}{6}+Oleft(x^5right)$$ and ignoring the higher order terms solve either the quadratic equation giving as approximation $x=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ or even the cubic equation (but this would not be very pleasant).
So, for $ageq 1$, use Newton method with $x_0=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ for finding the zero of
$$f(x)=a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)$$
$$f'(x)=2 a x+frac{1}{sqrt{1-x^2}}-1$$
$$x_{n+1}=x_n-frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$$
Trying for $a=2$, this would give the following iterates
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & x_n \
0 & 0.88622693 \
1 & 0.84308752 \
2 & 0.84055714 \
3 & 0.84055001
end{array}
right)$$
We could have a better approximation of the guess building the $[2,k]$ Padé approximant of the function and solve the resulting quadratic. Using $k=2$, this would give as an estimate
$$x_0=frac{3 a left( sqrt{3pi(96 a^3-pi)}-piright)}{72 a^3-pi}$$ For $a=2$, this would give $0.856358$.
Another thing which could be done is to use series reversion and get
$$x=t-frac{t^4}{6 pi }-frac{3 t^6}{40 pi }+frac{5 t^7}{72 pi ^2}-frac{5 t^8}{112
pi }+frac{7 t^9}{80 pi ^2}-frac{left(128+105 pi ^2right) t^{10}}{3456 pi
^3}+frac{2067 t^{11}}{22400 pi ^2}-frac{left(704+189 pi ^2right)
t^{12}}{8448 pi ^3}+frac{11 left(98+407 pi ^2right) t^{13}}{48384 pi
^4}+Oleft(t^{14}right)$$ where $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ Applied again for $a=2$, this would give $0.841464$. Using this, I am sure that Newton method would converge in very few iterations.
In order to check the quality of the approximation, let us give $x$ a value; from $x$, compute $a=frac{x+cos ^{-1}(x) } {x^2}$ then $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ and recompute $x$ according to the last expansion. Below are rproduced some values
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
x_{text{given}} & a & x_{text{calculated}} \
0.05 & 628.310 & 0.0500000000 \
0.10 & 157.063 & 0.1000000000 \
0.15 & 69.7879 & 0.1500000000 \
0.20 & 39.2360 & 0.2000000000 \
0.25 & 25.0899 & 0.2500000000 \
0.30 & 17.4012 & 0.3000000004 \
0.35 & 12.7610 & 0.3500000031 \
0.40 & 9.74550 & 0.4000000194 \
0.45 & 7.67423 & 0.4500000998 \
0.50 & 6.18879 & 0.5000004337 \
0.55 & 5.08573 & 0.5500016534 \
0.60 & 4.24249 & 0.6000056758 \
0.65 & 3.58157 & 0.6500179206 \
0.70 & 3.05183 & 0.7000529960 \
0.75 & 2.61819 & 0.7501492859 \
0.80 & 2.25547 & 0.8004077547 \
0.85 & 1.94438 & 0.8511043677 \
0.90 & 1.66793 & 0.9030757253 \
0.95 & 1.40450 & 0.9596060077
end{array}
right)$$
A problem remains when $a$ is close to $1$. For that case, we can perform the Taylor expansion around $x=1$ to get
$$a=1+sqrt{2} sqrt{1-x}+(1-x)+Oleft((x-1)^{3/2}right)implies x=1-a+sqrt{2 a-1}$$
Edit
Since I suppose that you would like accurate results, you will be using Newton method.
Using a quick and dirty non linear regression $(R^2=0.999997)$, you could use for the wole range
$$x_0=left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)-frac{117}{1426}left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)^5$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
As said in comments, this is a transcendental equation and you cannot expect analytical solutions and then some numerical method would be required.
We can make the equation looking nicer using $R=frac h x$ and $a=frac{pi r^2}{h^2} $which makes
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=0$$ and the solution is the intersetion of $f(x)=xcos ^{-1}(x)$ with $g(x)=ax^2$. There is only one solution to the equation provided $a geq 1$ and, for sure, the solution is in $[0,1]$.
For sure, if $a$ is large (that is to say $x$ small), you could use Taylor expansion to get
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=frac{pi }{2}-a x^2-frac{x^3}{6}+Oleft(x^5right)$$ and ignoring the higher order terms solve either the quadratic equation giving as approximation $x=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ or even the cubic equation (but this would not be very pleasant).
So, for $ageq 1$, use Newton method with $x_0=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ for finding the zero of
$$f(x)=a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)$$
$$f'(x)=2 a x+frac{1}{sqrt{1-x^2}}-1$$
$$x_{n+1}=x_n-frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$$
Trying for $a=2$, this would give the following iterates
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & x_n \
0 & 0.88622693 \
1 & 0.84308752 \
2 & 0.84055714 \
3 & 0.84055001
end{array}
right)$$
We could have a better approximation of the guess building the $[2,k]$ Padé approximant of the function and solve the resulting quadratic. Using $k=2$, this would give as an estimate
$$x_0=frac{3 a left( sqrt{3pi(96 a^3-pi)}-piright)}{72 a^3-pi}$$ For $a=2$, this would give $0.856358$.
Another thing which could be done is to use series reversion and get
$$x=t-frac{t^4}{6 pi }-frac{3 t^6}{40 pi }+frac{5 t^7}{72 pi ^2}-frac{5 t^8}{112
pi }+frac{7 t^9}{80 pi ^2}-frac{left(128+105 pi ^2right) t^{10}}{3456 pi
^3}+frac{2067 t^{11}}{22400 pi ^2}-frac{left(704+189 pi ^2right)
t^{12}}{8448 pi ^3}+frac{11 left(98+407 pi ^2right) t^{13}}{48384 pi
^4}+Oleft(t^{14}right)$$ where $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ Applied again for $a=2$, this would give $0.841464$. Using this, I am sure that Newton method would converge in very few iterations.
In order to check the quality of the approximation, let us give $x$ a value; from $x$, compute $a=frac{x+cos ^{-1}(x) } {x^2}$ then $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ and recompute $x$ according to the last expansion. Below are rproduced some values
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
x_{text{given}} & a & x_{text{calculated}} \
0.05 & 628.310 & 0.0500000000 \
0.10 & 157.063 & 0.1000000000 \
0.15 & 69.7879 & 0.1500000000 \
0.20 & 39.2360 & 0.2000000000 \
0.25 & 25.0899 & 0.2500000000 \
0.30 & 17.4012 & 0.3000000004 \
0.35 & 12.7610 & 0.3500000031 \
0.40 & 9.74550 & 0.4000000194 \
0.45 & 7.67423 & 0.4500000998 \
0.50 & 6.18879 & 0.5000004337 \
0.55 & 5.08573 & 0.5500016534 \
0.60 & 4.24249 & 0.6000056758 \
0.65 & 3.58157 & 0.6500179206 \
0.70 & 3.05183 & 0.7000529960 \
0.75 & 2.61819 & 0.7501492859 \
0.80 & 2.25547 & 0.8004077547 \
0.85 & 1.94438 & 0.8511043677 \
0.90 & 1.66793 & 0.9030757253 \
0.95 & 1.40450 & 0.9596060077
end{array}
right)$$
A problem remains when $a$ is close to $1$. For that case, we can perform the Taylor expansion around $x=1$ to get
$$a=1+sqrt{2} sqrt{1-x}+(1-x)+Oleft((x-1)^{3/2}right)implies x=1-a+sqrt{2 a-1}$$
Edit
Since I suppose that you would like accurate results, you will be using Newton method.
Using a quick and dirty non linear regression $(R^2=0.999997)$, you could use for the wole range
$$x_0=left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)-frac{117}{1426}left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)^5$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As said in comments, this is a transcendental equation and you cannot expect analytical solutions and then some numerical method would be required.
We can make the equation looking nicer using $R=frac h x$ and $a=frac{pi r^2}{h^2} $which makes
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=0$$ and the solution is the intersetion of $f(x)=xcos ^{-1}(x)$ with $g(x)=ax^2$. There is only one solution to the equation provided $a geq 1$ and, for sure, the solution is in $[0,1]$.
For sure, if $a$ is large (that is to say $x$ small), you could use Taylor expansion to get
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=frac{pi }{2}-a x^2-frac{x^3}{6}+Oleft(x^5right)$$ and ignoring the higher order terms solve either the quadratic equation giving as approximation $x=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ or even the cubic equation (but this would not be very pleasant).
So, for $ageq 1$, use Newton method with $x_0=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ for finding the zero of
$$f(x)=a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)$$
$$f'(x)=2 a x+frac{1}{sqrt{1-x^2}}-1$$
$$x_{n+1}=x_n-frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$$
Trying for $a=2$, this would give the following iterates
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & x_n \
0 & 0.88622693 \
1 & 0.84308752 \
2 & 0.84055714 \
3 & 0.84055001
end{array}
right)$$
We could have a better approximation of the guess building the $[2,k]$ Padé approximant of the function and solve the resulting quadratic. Using $k=2$, this would give as an estimate
$$x_0=frac{3 a left( sqrt{3pi(96 a^3-pi)}-piright)}{72 a^3-pi}$$ For $a=2$, this would give $0.856358$.
Another thing which could be done is to use series reversion and get
$$x=t-frac{t^4}{6 pi }-frac{3 t^6}{40 pi }+frac{5 t^7}{72 pi ^2}-frac{5 t^8}{112
pi }+frac{7 t^9}{80 pi ^2}-frac{left(128+105 pi ^2right) t^{10}}{3456 pi
^3}+frac{2067 t^{11}}{22400 pi ^2}-frac{left(704+189 pi ^2right)
t^{12}}{8448 pi ^3}+frac{11 left(98+407 pi ^2right) t^{13}}{48384 pi
^4}+Oleft(t^{14}right)$$ where $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ Applied again for $a=2$, this would give $0.841464$. Using this, I am sure that Newton method would converge in very few iterations.
In order to check the quality of the approximation, let us give $x$ a value; from $x$, compute $a=frac{x+cos ^{-1}(x) } {x^2}$ then $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ and recompute $x$ according to the last expansion. Below are rproduced some values
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
x_{text{given}} & a & x_{text{calculated}} \
0.05 & 628.310 & 0.0500000000 \
0.10 & 157.063 & 0.1000000000 \
0.15 & 69.7879 & 0.1500000000 \
0.20 & 39.2360 & 0.2000000000 \
0.25 & 25.0899 & 0.2500000000 \
0.30 & 17.4012 & 0.3000000004 \
0.35 & 12.7610 & 0.3500000031 \
0.40 & 9.74550 & 0.4000000194 \
0.45 & 7.67423 & 0.4500000998 \
0.50 & 6.18879 & 0.5000004337 \
0.55 & 5.08573 & 0.5500016534 \
0.60 & 4.24249 & 0.6000056758 \
0.65 & 3.58157 & 0.6500179206 \
0.70 & 3.05183 & 0.7000529960 \
0.75 & 2.61819 & 0.7501492859 \
0.80 & 2.25547 & 0.8004077547 \
0.85 & 1.94438 & 0.8511043677 \
0.90 & 1.66793 & 0.9030757253 \
0.95 & 1.40450 & 0.9596060077
end{array}
right)$$
A problem remains when $a$ is close to $1$. For that case, we can perform the Taylor expansion around $x=1$ to get
$$a=1+sqrt{2} sqrt{1-x}+(1-x)+Oleft((x-1)^{3/2}right)implies x=1-a+sqrt{2 a-1}$$
Edit
Since I suppose that you would like accurate results, you will be using Newton method.
Using a quick and dirty non linear regression $(R^2=0.999997)$, you could use for the wole range
$$x_0=left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)-frac{117}{1426}left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)^5$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As said in comments, this is a transcendental equation and you cannot expect analytical solutions and then some numerical method would be required.
We can make the equation looking nicer using $R=frac h x$ and $a=frac{pi r^2}{h^2} $which makes
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=0$$ and the solution is the intersetion of $f(x)=xcos ^{-1}(x)$ with $g(x)=ax^2$. There is only one solution to the equation provided $a geq 1$ and, for sure, the solution is in $[0,1]$.
For sure, if $a$ is large (that is to say $x$ small), you could use Taylor expansion to get
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=frac{pi }{2}-a x^2-frac{x^3}{6}+Oleft(x^5right)$$ and ignoring the higher order terms solve either the quadratic equation giving as approximation $x=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ or even the cubic equation (but this would not be very pleasant).
So, for $ageq 1$, use Newton method with $x_0=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ for finding the zero of
$$f(x)=a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)$$
$$f'(x)=2 a x+frac{1}{sqrt{1-x^2}}-1$$
$$x_{n+1}=x_n-frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$$
Trying for $a=2$, this would give the following iterates
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & x_n \
0 & 0.88622693 \
1 & 0.84308752 \
2 & 0.84055714 \
3 & 0.84055001
end{array}
right)$$
We could have a better approximation of the guess building the $[2,k]$ Padé approximant of the function and solve the resulting quadratic. Using $k=2$, this would give as an estimate
$$x_0=frac{3 a left( sqrt{3pi(96 a^3-pi)}-piright)}{72 a^3-pi}$$ For $a=2$, this would give $0.856358$.
Another thing which could be done is to use series reversion and get
$$x=t-frac{t^4}{6 pi }-frac{3 t^6}{40 pi }+frac{5 t^7}{72 pi ^2}-frac{5 t^8}{112
pi }+frac{7 t^9}{80 pi ^2}-frac{left(128+105 pi ^2right) t^{10}}{3456 pi
^3}+frac{2067 t^{11}}{22400 pi ^2}-frac{left(704+189 pi ^2right)
t^{12}}{8448 pi ^3}+frac{11 left(98+407 pi ^2right) t^{13}}{48384 pi
^4}+Oleft(t^{14}right)$$ where $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ Applied again for $a=2$, this would give $0.841464$. Using this, I am sure that Newton method would converge in very few iterations.
In order to check the quality of the approximation, let us give $x$ a value; from $x$, compute $a=frac{x+cos ^{-1}(x) } {x^2}$ then $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ and recompute $x$ according to the last expansion. Below are rproduced some values
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
x_{text{given}} & a & x_{text{calculated}} \
0.05 & 628.310 & 0.0500000000 \
0.10 & 157.063 & 0.1000000000 \
0.15 & 69.7879 & 0.1500000000 \
0.20 & 39.2360 & 0.2000000000 \
0.25 & 25.0899 & 0.2500000000 \
0.30 & 17.4012 & 0.3000000004 \
0.35 & 12.7610 & 0.3500000031 \
0.40 & 9.74550 & 0.4000000194 \
0.45 & 7.67423 & 0.4500000998 \
0.50 & 6.18879 & 0.5000004337 \
0.55 & 5.08573 & 0.5500016534 \
0.60 & 4.24249 & 0.6000056758 \
0.65 & 3.58157 & 0.6500179206 \
0.70 & 3.05183 & 0.7000529960 \
0.75 & 2.61819 & 0.7501492859 \
0.80 & 2.25547 & 0.8004077547 \
0.85 & 1.94438 & 0.8511043677 \
0.90 & 1.66793 & 0.9030757253 \
0.95 & 1.40450 & 0.9596060077
end{array}
right)$$
A problem remains when $a$ is close to $1$. For that case, we can perform the Taylor expansion around $x=1$ to get
$$a=1+sqrt{2} sqrt{1-x}+(1-x)+Oleft((x-1)^{3/2}right)implies x=1-a+sqrt{2 a-1}$$
Edit
Since I suppose that you would like accurate results, you will be using Newton method.
Using a quick and dirty non linear regression $(R^2=0.999997)$, you could use for the wole range
$$x_0=left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)-frac{117}{1426}left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)^5$$
$endgroup$
As said in comments, this is a transcendental equation and you cannot expect analytical solutions and then some numerical method would be required.
We can make the equation looking nicer using $R=frac h x$ and $a=frac{pi r^2}{h^2} $which makes
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=0$$ and the solution is the intersetion of $f(x)=xcos ^{-1}(x)$ with $g(x)=ax^2$. There is only one solution to the equation provided $a geq 1$ and, for sure, the solution is in $[0,1]$.
For sure, if $a$ is large (that is to say $x$ small), you could use Taylor expansion to get
$$a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)=frac{pi }{2}-a x^2-frac{x^3}{6}+Oleft(x^5right)$$ and ignoring the higher order terms solve either the quadratic equation giving as approximation $x=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ or even the cubic equation (but this would not be very pleasant).
So, for $ageq 1$, use Newton method with $x_0=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ for finding the zero of
$$f(x)=a x^2-x-cos ^{-1}(x)$$
$$f'(x)=2 a x+frac{1}{sqrt{1-x^2}}-1$$
$$x_{n+1}=x_n-frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$$
Trying for $a=2$, this would give the following iterates
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & x_n \
0 & 0.88622693 \
1 & 0.84308752 \
2 & 0.84055714 \
3 & 0.84055001
end{array}
right)$$
We could have a better approximation of the guess building the $[2,k]$ Padé approximant of the function and solve the resulting quadratic. Using $k=2$, this would give as an estimate
$$x_0=frac{3 a left( sqrt{3pi(96 a^3-pi)}-piright)}{72 a^3-pi}$$ For $a=2$, this would give $0.856358$.
Another thing which could be done is to use series reversion and get
$$x=t-frac{t^4}{6 pi }-frac{3 t^6}{40 pi }+frac{5 t^7}{72 pi ^2}-frac{5 t^8}{112
pi }+frac{7 t^9}{80 pi ^2}-frac{left(128+105 pi ^2right) t^{10}}{3456 pi
^3}+frac{2067 t^{11}}{22400 pi ^2}-frac{left(704+189 pi ^2right)
t^{12}}{8448 pi ^3}+frac{11 left(98+407 pi ^2right) t^{13}}{48384 pi
^4}+Oleft(t^{14}right)$$ where $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ Applied again for $a=2$, this would give $0.841464$. Using this, I am sure that Newton method would converge in very few iterations.
In order to check the quality of the approximation, let us give $x$ a value; from $x$, compute $a=frac{x+cos ^{-1}(x) } {x^2}$ then $t=sqrt{frac pi {2a}}$ and recompute $x$ according to the last expansion. Below are rproduced some values
$$left(
begin{array}{ccc}
x_{text{given}} & a & x_{text{calculated}} \
0.05 & 628.310 & 0.0500000000 \
0.10 & 157.063 & 0.1000000000 \
0.15 & 69.7879 & 0.1500000000 \
0.20 & 39.2360 & 0.2000000000 \
0.25 & 25.0899 & 0.2500000000 \
0.30 & 17.4012 & 0.3000000004 \
0.35 & 12.7610 & 0.3500000031 \
0.40 & 9.74550 & 0.4000000194 \
0.45 & 7.67423 & 0.4500000998 \
0.50 & 6.18879 & 0.5000004337 \
0.55 & 5.08573 & 0.5500016534 \
0.60 & 4.24249 & 0.6000056758 \
0.65 & 3.58157 & 0.6500179206 \
0.70 & 3.05183 & 0.7000529960 \
0.75 & 2.61819 & 0.7501492859 \
0.80 & 2.25547 & 0.8004077547 \
0.85 & 1.94438 & 0.8511043677 \
0.90 & 1.66793 & 0.9030757253 \
0.95 & 1.40450 & 0.9596060077
end{array}
right)$$
A problem remains when $a$ is close to $1$. For that case, we can perform the Taylor expansion around $x=1$ to get
$$a=1+sqrt{2} sqrt{1-x}+(1-x)+Oleft((x-1)^{3/2}right)implies x=1-a+sqrt{2 a-1}$$
Edit
Since I suppose that you would like accurate results, you will be using Newton method.
Using a quick and dirty non linear regression $(R^2=0.999997)$, you could use for the wole range
$$x_0=left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)-frac{117}{1426}left(sqrt{frac pi {2a}} right)^5$$
edited 10 hours ago
answered yesterday
Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici
123k1157135
123k1157135
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Mariksel Azemaj is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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Mariksel Azemaj is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Mariksel Azemaj is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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1
$begingroup$
While not foolproof, usually if WolframAlpha doesn't return an answer, it's an indication that it may well not be possible without something rather elegant or convoluted. It seems to be the case here; you might have to resort to numerical approximation methods. (Wolfram: goo.gl/kwehDo)
$endgroup$
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yesterday