Does $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$ converge? The Next CEO of Stack...

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Does $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$ converge?



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowDoes the series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}frac{sin(n-sqrt{n^2+n})}{n}$ converge?Does $sumlimits_{n=1}^inftyfrac{1}{sqrt{n}+sqrt{n+1}}$ converge?Is $sum cos(n pi) frac{n}{n^2+1}$ conditionally or absolutely convergent?Does $sumlimits_{n=1}^inftysin(n)sinleft(frac{pi}{2n}right)$ converge?Alternating series: $sumlimits_{n= 1}^{infty} (-1)^{n-1} frac{ln(n)}{n}$ convergence?On the convergence of $sum_{n=1}^{+infty}frac{1}{n},cosleft(frac{pi n}{2}right)$Does $sum _{n=1}^{infty }left(-1right)^{n+1}left(1-cosleft(frac{1}{sqrt{n}}right)right)$ converges conditionally?$sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty} frac{tan^{-1} n}{n}$ diverges.Does the series $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{n}{sqrt[3]{8n^5-1}}$ Converge?Convergence of $sumlimits_{m= 0}^{infty} frac{(-3)^m+2^m}{3^m+2^m}$












8












$begingroup$


The original question, given to my Calculus II recitation class, was:



Determine if the series $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{n}cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$$



converges absolutely, conditionally, or diverges. I can kind of see a comparison with the alternating harmonic series here, but making that formal is tough. With the absolute series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty} frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$, I'm not sure what test to apply.



What I've Tried: No tests (in the classical Calc II curriculum) work. I've tried expanding $cos^{2}(n+1)$ into a power series within the series in question, but I'm not really sure where to go from there. My intuition tells me this series will diverge, since it seems "close" to the harmonic series; but $cos(x)$ is less than $1$ infinitely often.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Fred, if this question is from a Calculus II course, my question is, how are you supposed to come up with an answer using the techniques available from Calculus II material? You may want to convey that to your professor. Which brings me to the second question. From which textbook is this exercise? Just curious
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 5:49










  • $begingroup$
    @imranfat This is from a practice sheet made by the instructor. I'm his TA for the course. Doing this on the board, I didn't immediately know what to do; and thinking about it on and off, I'm convinced it's a mistake, as I don't see any immediate way to apply the traditional Calculus II material. Regardless, it's an interesting question that's been bugging me.
    $endgroup$
    – Fred
    May 6 '18 at 5:52










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you can ask your professor what test he expects the students doe carry out. He doesn't have to show the work; you can share that with us. I am just curious...
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 16:11
















8












$begingroup$


The original question, given to my Calculus II recitation class, was:



Determine if the series $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{n}cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$$



converges absolutely, conditionally, or diverges. I can kind of see a comparison with the alternating harmonic series here, but making that formal is tough. With the absolute series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty} frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$, I'm not sure what test to apply.



What I've Tried: No tests (in the classical Calc II curriculum) work. I've tried expanding $cos^{2}(n+1)$ into a power series within the series in question, but I'm not really sure where to go from there. My intuition tells me this series will diverge, since it seems "close" to the harmonic series; but $cos(x)$ is less than $1$ infinitely often.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Fred, if this question is from a Calculus II course, my question is, how are you supposed to come up with an answer using the techniques available from Calculus II material? You may want to convey that to your professor. Which brings me to the second question. From which textbook is this exercise? Just curious
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 5:49










  • $begingroup$
    @imranfat This is from a practice sheet made by the instructor. I'm his TA for the course. Doing this on the board, I didn't immediately know what to do; and thinking about it on and off, I'm convinced it's a mistake, as I don't see any immediate way to apply the traditional Calculus II material. Regardless, it's an interesting question that's been bugging me.
    $endgroup$
    – Fred
    May 6 '18 at 5:52










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you can ask your professor what test he expects the students doe carry out. He doesn't have to show the work; you can share that with us. I am just curious...
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 16:11














8












8








8


1



$begingroup$


The original question, given to my Calculus II recitation class, was:



Determine if the series $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{n}cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$$



converges absolutely, conditionally, or diverges. I can kind of see a comparison with the alternating harmonic series here, but making that formal is tough. With the absolute series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty} frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$, I'm not sure what test to apply.



What I've Tried: No tests (in the classical Calc II curriculum) work. I've tried expanding $cos^{2}(n+1)$ into a power series within the series in question, but I'm not really sure where to go from there. My intuition tells me this series will diverge, since it seems "close" to the harmonic series; but $cos(x)$ is less than $1$ infinitely often.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The original question, given to my Calculus II recitation class, was:



Determine if the series $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{n}cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$$



converges absolutely, conditionally, or diverges. I can kind of see a comparison with the alternating harmonic series here, but making that formal is tough. With the absolute series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty} frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$, I'm not sure what test to apply.



What I've Tried: No tests (in the classical Calc II curriculum) work. I've tried expanding $cos^{2}(n+1)$ into a power series within the series in question, but I'm not really sure where to go from there. My intuition tells me this series will diverge, since it seems "close" to the harmonic series; but $cos(x)$ is less than $1$ infinitely often.







real-analysis calculus sequences-and-series trigonometry






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 17 at 8:46









rtybase

11.5k31534




11.5k31534










asked May 6 '18 at 5:21









FredFred

62659




62659












  • $begingroup$
    Fred, if this question is from a Calculus II course, my question is, how are you supposed to come up with an answer using the techniques available from Calculus II material? You may want to convey that to your professor. Which brings me to the second question. From which textbook is this exercise? Just curious
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 5:49










  • $begingroup$
    @imranfat This is from a practice sheet made by the instructor. I'm his TA for the course. Doing this on the board, I didn't immediately know what to do; and thinking about it on and off, I'm convinced it's a mistake, as I don't see any immediate way to apply the traditional Calculus II material. Regardless, it's an interesting question that's been bugging me.
    $endgroup$
    – Fred
    May 6 '18 at 5:52










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you can ask your professor what test he expects the students doe carry out. He doesn't have to show the work; you can share that with us. I am just curious...
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 16:11


















  • $begingroup$
    Fred, if this question is from a Calculus II course, my question is, how are you supposed to come up with an answer using the techniques available from Calculus II material? You may want to convey that to your professor. Which brings me to the second question. From which textbook is this exercise? Just curious
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 5:49










  • $begingroup$
    @imranfat This is from a practice sheet made by the instructor. I'm his TA for the course. Doing this on the board, I didn't immediately know what to do; and thinking about it on and off, I'm convinced it's a mistake, as I don't see any immediate way to apply the traditional Calculus II material. Regardless, it's an interesting question that's been bugging me.
    $endgroup$
    – Fred
    May 6 '18 at 5:52










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you can ask your professor what test he expects the students doe carry out. He doesn't have to show the work; you can share that with us. I am just curious...
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    May 6 '18 at 16:11
















$begingroup$
Fred, if this question is from a Calculus II course, my question is, how are you supposed to come up with an answer using the techniques available from Calculus II material? You may want to convey that to your professor. Which brings me to the second question. From which textbook is this exercise? Just curious
$endgroup$
– imranfat
May 6 '18 at 5:49




$begingroup$
Fred, if this question is from a Calculus II course, my question is, how are you supposed to come up with an answer using the techniques available from Calculus II material? You may want to convey that to your professor. Which brings me to the second question. From which textbook is this exercise? Just curious
$endgroup$
– imranfat
May 6 '18 at 5:49












$begingroup$
@imranfat This is from a practice sheet made by the instructor. I'm his TA for the course. Doing this on the board, I didn't immediately know what to do; and thinking about it on and off, I'm convinced it's a mistake, as I don't see any immediate way to apply the traditional Calculus II material. Regardless, it's an interesting question that's been bugging me.
$endgroup$
– Fred
May 6 '18 at 5:52




$begingroup$
@imranfat This is from a practice sheet made by the instructor. I'm his TA for the course. Doing this on the board, I didn't immediately know what to do; and thinking about it on and off, I'm convinced it's a mistake, as I don't see any immediate way to apply the traditional Calculus II material. Regardless, it's an interesting question that's been bugging me.
$endgroup$
– Fred
May 6 '18 at 5:52












$begingroup$
Well, you can ask your professor what test he expects the students doe carry out. He doesn't have to show the work; you can share that with us. I am just curious...
$endgroup$
– imranfat
May 6 '18 at 16:11




$begingroup$
Well, you can ask your professor what test he expects the students doe carry out. He doesn't have to show the work; you can share that with us. I am just curious...
$endgroup$
– imranfat
May 6 '18 at 16:11










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

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4












$begingroup$

$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$ clearly diverges. For any two consecutive integers, at least one of them is distant from a (non-integer) half-integer multiple of $pi$ by at least $frac{1}{2}$, which is more than $frac{pi}{8}$. That number of the pair will have a cosine greater than $cos(frac{3pi}{8})$ in absolute value, and $cos(frac{3pi}{8})=sin(frac{pi}{8})>frac{1}{2}sin(frac{pi}{4})=frac{sqrt{2}}{4}>frac{1}{3}$. Thus, any two consecutive terms $frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1}$ will contribute at least $frac{1}{9(j+1)}$ to the sum. Since $jge 1$, we have $frac{1}{j+1}gefrac{1}{4j}+frac{1}{4(j+1)}$, so $frac{1}{9(j+1)} gefrac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$, i.e. $$frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1} ge frac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$$ But this means $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}gefrac{1}{36}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    5












    $begingroup$

    Regarding the question on absolute convergence, the answer is no.



    $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{1}{2n}}_{text{divergent harmonic series}} + underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



    Also we can use the same approach to prove convergence when $(-1)^n$ appears.



    $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^ncos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^n}{2n}}_{text{convergent alternating series}} - underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



    Note that $(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)pi] cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)(2 + pi)]$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks. I see you've distributed summation. Is this legal in this case? Also, I've wiki'd Dirichlet's test, but I can't see which two series you are using to fit the criterion.
      $endgroup$
      – Fred
      May 6 '18 at 5:41






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @Fred. Yes you can split the partial sums as I added above. As $m to infty$ the first sum on the RHS diverges and the second sum converges so the sum on the LHS diverges.
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      May 6 '18 at 5:45






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      This is valid but difficult. (In particular, I think a Calc II student might have trouble finding a bound for $sum cos 2(n+1)$ so even if Dirichlet's test was part of his curriculum it might be tough. I give a more direct and elementary argument below.
      $endgroup$
      – C Monsour
      May 6 '18 at 5:49










    • $begingroup$
      @Fred: I think you figured it out. The Dirichlet test applies because $1/(2n) to 0$ in a decreasing fashion and the partial sums $sum_{n=1}^{m} cos 2(n+1)$ are bounded for all $m$. Same applies to $sum_{n=1}^m cos ((2+pi)(n+1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – RRL
      May 6 '18 at 6:06





















    2












    $begingroup$

    You could use Dirichlet's test. Observe $n^{-1}$ converges monotonically to zero and
    begin{align}
    left|sum^N_{n=1}(-1)^n cos^2(n+1) right|leq 1.
    end{align}
    Hence the series converges.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      True, but this test is not in Calculus II curriculum.
      $endgroup$
      – imranfat
      May 6 '18 at 5:45










    • $begingroup$
      @CMonsour Yes. But I didn't say $sum^N_{n=1}cos^2(n+1)$ is bounded. Look carefully.
      $endgroup$
      – Jacky Chong
      May 6 '18 at 5:48












    • $begingroup$
      OK, I see what your claim is now. (I had missed the $(-1)^n$ since the question title was about the absolute series.) It does seem like it might be a difficult bound for a Calc II student to prove.
      $endgroup$
      – C Monsour
      May 6 '18 at 5:55










    • $begingroup$
      Jacky.Very nice, clear and concise.Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Peter Szilas
      May 6 '18 at 6:51












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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    $begingroup$

    $sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$ clearly diverges. For any two consecutive integers, at least one of them is distant from a (non-integer) half-integer multiple of $pi$ by at least $frac{1}{2}$, which is more than $frac{pi}{8}$. That number of the pair will have a cosine greater than $cos(frac{3pi}{8})$ in absolute value, and $cos(frac{3pi}{8})=sin(frac{pi}{8})>frac{1}{2}sin(frac{pi}{4})=frac{sqrt{2}}{4}>frac{1}{3}$. Thus, any two consecutive terms $frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1}$ will contribute at least $frac{1}{9(j+1)}$ to the sum. Since $jge 1$, we have $frac{1}{j+1}gefrac{1}{4j}+frac{1}{4(j+1)}$, so $frac{1}{9(j+1)} gefrac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$, i.e. $$frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1} ge frac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$$ But this means $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}gefrac{1}{36}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      4












      $begingroup$

      $sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$ clearly diverges. For any two consecutive integers, at least one of them is distant from a (non-integer) half-integer multiple of $pi$ by at least $frac{1}{2}$, which is more than $frac{pi}{8}$. That number of the pair will have a cosine greater than $cos(frac{3pi}{8})$ in absolute value, and $cos(frac{3pi}{8})=sin(frac{pi}{8})>frac{1}{2}sin(frac{pi}{4})=frac{sqrt{2}}{4}>frac{1}{3}$. Thus, any two consecutive terms $frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1}$ will contribute at least $frac{1}{9(j+1)}$ to the sum. Since $jge 1$, we have $frac{1}{j+1}gefrac{1}{4j}+frac{1}{4(j+1)}$, so $frac{1}{9(j+1)} gefrac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$, i.e. $$frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1} ge frac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$$ But this means $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}gefrac{1}{36}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        $sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$ clearly diverges. For any two consecutive integers, at least one of them is distant from a (non-integer) half-integer multiple of $pi$ by at least $frac{1}{2}$, which is more than $frac{pi}{8}$. That number of the pair will have a cosine greater than $cos(frac{3pi}{8})$ in absolute value, and $cos(frac{3pi}{8})=sin(frac{pi}{8})>frac{1}{2}sin(frac{pi}{4})=frac{sqrt{2}}{4}>frac{1}{3}$. Thus, any two consecutive terms $frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1}$ will contribute at least $frac{1}{9(j+1)}$ to the sum. Since $jge 1$, we have $frac{1}{j+1}gefrac{1}{4j}+frac{1}{4(j+1)}$, so $frac{1}{9(j+1)} gefrac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$, i.e. $$frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1} ge frac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$$ But this means $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}gefrac{1}{36}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        $sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}$ clearly diverges. For any two consecutive integers, at least one of them is distant from a (non-integer) half-integer multiple of $pi$ by at least $frac{1}{2}$, which is more than $frac{pi}{8}$. That number of the pair will have a cosine greater than $cos(frac{3pi}{8})$ in absolute value, and $cos(frac{3pi}{8})=sin(frac{pi}{8})>frac{1}{2}sin(frac{pi}{4})=frac{sqrt{2}}{4}>frac{1}{3}$. Thus, any two consecutive terms $frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1}$ will contribute at least $frac{1}{9(j+1)}$ to the sum. Since $jge 1$, we have $frac{1}{j+1}gefrac{1}{4j}+frac{1}{4(j+1)}$, so $frac{1}{9(j+1)} gefrac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$, i.e. $$frac{cos^{2}(j+1)}{j} + frac{cos^{2}((j+1)+1)}{j+1} ge frac{1}{36j}+frac{1}{36(j+1)}$$ But this means $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{cos^{2}(n+1)}{n}gefrac{1}{36}sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 17 at 4:12

























        answered May 6 '18 at 5:43









        C MonsourC Monsour

        6,3391326




        6,3391326























            5












            $begingroup$

            Regarding the question on absolute convergence, the answer is no.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{1}{2n}}_{text{divergent harmonic series}} + underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Also we can use the same approach to prove convergence when $(-1)^n$ appears.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^ncos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^n}{2n}}_{text{convergent alternating series}} - underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Note that $(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)pi] cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)(2 + pi)]$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks. I see you've distributed summation. Is this legal in this case? Also, I've wiki'd Dirichlet's test, but I can't see which two series you are using to fit the criterion.
              $endgroup$
              – Fred
              May 6 '18 at 5:41






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Fred. Yes you can split the partial sums as I added above. As $m to infty$ the first sum on the RHS diverges and the second sum converges so the sum on the LHS diverges.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 5:45






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This is valid but difficult. (In particular, I think a Calc II student might have trouble finding a bound for $sum cos 2(n+1)$ so even if Dirichlet's test was part of his curriculum it might be tough. I give a more direct and elementary argument below.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:49










            • $begingroup$
              @Fred: I think you figured it out. The Dirichlet test applies because $1/(2n) to 0$ in a decreasing fashion and the partial sums $sum_{n=1}^{m} cos 2(n+1)$ are bounded for all $m$. Same applies to $sum_{n=1}^m cos ((2+pi)(n+1)$.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 6:06


















            5












            $begingroup$

            Regarding the question on absolute convergence, the answer is no.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{1}{2n}}_{text{divergent harmonic series}} + underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Also we can use the same approach to prove convergence when $(-1)^n$ appears.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^ncos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^n}{2n}}_{text{convergent alternating series}} - underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Note that $(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)pi] cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)(2 + pi)]$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks. I see you've distributed summation. Is this legal in this case? Also, I've wiki'd Dirichlet's test, but I can't see which two series you are using to fit the criterion.
              $endgroup$
              – Fred
              May 6 '18 at 5:41






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Fred. Yes you can split the partial sums as I added above. As $m to infty$ the first sum on the RHS diverges and the second sum converges so the sum on the LHS diverges.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 5:45






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This is valid but difficult. (In particular, I think a Calc II student might have trouble finding a bound for $sum cos 2(n+1)$ so even if Dirichlet's test was part of his curriculum it might be tough. I give a more direct and elementary argument below.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:49










            • $begingroup$
              @Fred: I think you figured it out. The Dirichlet test applies because $1/(2n) to 0$ in a decreasing fashion and the partial sums $sum_{n=1}^{m} cos 2(n+1)$ are bounded for all $m$. Same applies to $sum_{n=1}^m cos ((2+pi)(n+1)$.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 6:06
















            5












            5








            5





            $begingroup$

            Regarding the question on absolute convergence, the answer is no.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{1}{2n}}_{text{divergent harmonic series}} + underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Also we can use the same approach to prove convergence when $(-1)^n$ appears.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^ncos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^n}{2n}}_{text{convergent alternating series}} - underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Note that $(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)pi] cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)(2 + pi)]$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Regarding the question on absolute convergence, the answer is no.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{1}{2n}}_{text{divergent harmonic series}} + underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Also we can use the same approach to prove convergence when $(-1)^n$ appears.



            $$sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^ncos^2 (n+1)}{n} = underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^n}{2n}}_{text{convergent alternating series}} - underbrace{sum_{n=1}^mfrac{(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1)}{2n}}_{text{convergent by Dirichlet test}}$$



            Note that $(-1)^{n+1}cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)pi] cos 2(n+1) = cos [(n+1)(2 + pi)]$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited May 6 '18 at 5:53

























            answered May 6 '18 at 5:35









            RRLRRL

            53.1k52574




            53.1k52574












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks. I see you've distributed summation. Is this legal in this case? Also, I've wiki'd Dirichlet's test, but I can't see which two series you are using to fit the criterion.
              $endgroup$
              – Fred
              May 6 '18 at 5:41






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Fred. Yes you can split the partial sums as I added above. As $m to infty$ the first sum on the RHS diverges and the second sum converges so the sum on the LHS diverges.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 5:45






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This is valid but difficult. (In particular, I think a Calc II student might have trouble finding a bound for $sum cos 2(n+1)$ so even if Dirichlet's test was part of his curriculum it might be tough. I give a more direct and elementary argument below.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:49










            • $begingroup$
              @Fred: I think you figured it out. The Dirichlet test applies because $1/(2n) to 0$ in a decreasing fashion and the partial sums $sum_{n=1}^{m} cos 2(n+1)$ are bounded for all $m$. Same applies to $sum_{n=1}^m cos ((2+pi)(n+1)$.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 6:06




















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks. I see you've distributed summation. Is this legal in this case? Also, I've wiki'd Dirichlet's test, but I can't see which two series you are using to fit the criterion.
              $endgroup$
              – Fred
              May 6 '18 at 5:41






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Fred. Yes you can split the partial sums as I added above. As $m to infty$ the first sum on the RHS diverges and the second sum converges so the sum on the LHS diverges.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 5:45






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This is valid but difficult. (In particular, I think a Calc II student might have trouble finding a bound for $sum cos 2(n+1)$ so even if Dirichlet's test was part of his curriculum it might be tough. I give a more direct and elementary argument below.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:49










            • $begingroup$
              @Fred: I think you figured it out. The Dirichlet test applies because $1/(2n) to 0$ in a decreasing fashion and the partial sums $sum_{n=1}^{m} cos 2(n+1)$ are bounded for all $m$. Same applies to $sum_{n=1}^m cos ((2+pi)(n+1)$.
              $endgroup$
              – RRL
              May 6 '18 at 6:06


















            $begingroup$
            Thanks. I see you've distributed summation. Is this legal in this case? Also, I've wiki'd Dirichlet's test, but I can't see which two series you are using to fit the criterion.
            $endgroup$
            – Fred
            May 6 '18 at 5:41




            $begingroup$
            Thanks. I see you've distributed summation. Is this legal in this case? Also, I've wiki'd Dirichlet's test, but I can't see which two series you are using to fit the criterion.
            $endgroup$
            – Fred
            May 6 '18 at 5:41




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @Fred. Yes you can split the partial sums as I added above. As $m to infty$ the first sum on the RHS diverges and the second sum converges so the sum on the LHS diverges.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            May 6 '18 at 5:45




            $begingroup$
            @Fred. Yes you can split the partial sums as I added above. As $m to infty$ the first sum on the RHS diverges and the second sum converges so the sum on the LHS diverges.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            May 6 '18 at 5:45




            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            This is valid but difficult. (In particular, I think a Calc II student might have trouble finding a bound for $sum cos 2(n+1)$ so even if Dirichlet's test was part of his curriculum it might be tough. I give a more direct and elementary argument below.
            $endgroup$
            – C Monsour
            May 6 '18 at 5:49




            $begingroup$
            This is valid but difficult. (In particular, I think a Calc II student might have trouble finding a bound for $sum cos 2(n+1)$ so even if Dirichlet's test was part of his curriculum it might be tough. I give a more direct and elementary argument below.
            $endgroup$
            – C Monsour
            May 6 '18 at 5:49












            $begingroup$
            @Fred: I think you figured it out. The Dirichlet test applies because $1/(2n) to 0$ in a decreasing fashion and the partial sums $sum_{n=1}^{m} cos 2(n+1)$ are bounded for all $m$. Same applies to $sum_{n=1}^m cos ((2+pi)(n+1)$.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            May 6 '18 at 6:06






            $begingroup$
            @Fred: I think you figured it out. The Dirichlet test applies because $1/(2n) to 0$ in a decreasing fashion and the partial sums $sum_{n=1}^{m} cos 2(n+1)$ are bounded for all $m$. Same applies to $sum_{n=1}^m cos ((2+pi)(n+1)$.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            May 6 '18 at 6:06













            2












            $begingroup$

            You could use Dirichlet's test. Observe $n^{-1}$ converges monotonically to zero and
            begin{align}
            left|sum^N_{n=1}(-1)^n cos^2(n+1) right|leq 1.
            end{align}
            Hence the series converges.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              True, but this test is not in Calculus II curriculum.
              $endgroup$
              – imranfat
              May 6 '18 at 5:45










            • $begingroup$
              @CMonsour Yes. But I didn't say $sum^N_{n=1}cos^2(n+1)$ is bounded. Look carefully.
              $endgroup$
              – Jacky Chong
              May 6 '18 at 5:48












            • $begingroup$
              OK, I see what your claim is now. (I had missed the $(-1)^n$ since the question title was about the absolute series.) It does seem like it might be a difficult bound for a Calc II student to prove.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:55










            • $begingroup$
              Jacky.Very nice, clear and concise.Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Peter Szilas
              May 6 '18 at 6:51
















            2












            $begingroup$

            You could use Dirichlet's test. Observe $n^{-1}$ converges monotonically to zero and
            begin{align}
            left|sum^N_{n=1}(-1)^n cos^2(n+1) right|leq 1.
            end{align}
            Hence the series converges.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              True, but this test is not in Calculus II curriculum.
              $endgroup$
              – imranfat
              May 6 '18 at 5:45










            • $begingroup$
              @CMonsour Yes. But I didn't say $sum^N_{n=1}cos^2(n+1)$ is bounded. Look carefully.
              $endgroup$
              – Jacky Chong
              May 6 '18 at 5:48












            • $begingroup$
              OK, I see what your claim is now. (I had missed the $(-1)^n$ since the question title was about the absolute series.) It does seem like it might be a difficult bound for a Calc II student to prove.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:55










            • $begingroup$
              Jacky.Very nice, clear and concise.Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Peter Szilas
              May 6 '18 at 6:51














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            You could use Dirichlet's test. Observe $n^{-1}$ converges monotonically to zero and
            begin{align}
            left|sum^N_{n=1}(-1)^n cos^2(n+1) right|leq 1.
            end{align}
            Hence the series converges.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            You could use Dirichlet's test. Observe $n^{-1}$ converges monotonically to zero and
            begin{align}
            left|sum^N_{n=1}(-1)^n cos^2(n+1) right|leq 1.
            end{align}
            Hence the series converges.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered May 6 '18 at 5:35









            Jacky ChongJacky Chong

            19.3k21129




            19.3k21129








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              True, but this test is not in Calculus II curriculum.
              $endgroup$
              – imranfat
              May 6 '18 at 5:45










            • $begingroup$
              @CMonsour Yes. But I didn't say $sum^N_{n=1}cos^2(n+1)$ is bounded. Look carefully.
              $endgroup$
              – Jacky Chong
              May 6 '18 at 5:48












            • $begingroup$
              OK, I see what your claim is now. (I had missed the $(-1)^n$ since the question title was about the absolute series.) It does seem like it might be a difficult bound for a Calc II student to prove.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:55










            • $begingroup$
              Jacky.Very nice, clear and concise.Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Peter Szilas
              May 6 '18 at 6:51














            • 1




              $begingroup$
              True, but this test is not in Calculus II curriculum.
              $endgroup$
              – imranfat
              May 6 '18 at 5:45










            • $begingroup$
              @CMonsour Yes. But I didn't say $sum^N_{n=1}cos^2(n+1)$ is bounded. Look carefully.
              $endgroup$
              – Jacky Chong
              May 6 '18 at 5:48












            • $begingroup$
              OK, I see what your claim is now. (I had missed the $(-1)^n$ since the question title was about the absolute series.) It does seem like it might be a difficult bound for a Calc II student to prove.
              $endgroup$
              – C Monsour
              May 6 '18 at 5:55










            • $begingroup$
              Jacky.Very nice, clear and concise.Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Peter Szilas
              May 6 '18 at 6:51








            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            True, but this test is not in Calculus II curriculum.
            $endgroup$
            – imranfat
            May 6 '18 at 5:45




            $begingroup$
            True, but this test is not in Calculus II curriculum.
            $endgroup$
            – imranfat
            May 6 '18 at 5:45












            $begingroup$
            @CMonsour Yes. But I didn't say $sum^N_{n=1}cos^2(n+1)$ is bounded. Look carefully.
            $endgroup$
            – Jacky Chong
            May 6 '18 at 5:48






            $begingroup$
            @CMonsour Yes. But I didn't say $sum^N_{n=1}cos^2(n+1)$ is bounded. Look carefully.
            $endgroup$
            – Jacky Chong
            May 6 '18 at 5:48














            $begingroup$
            OK, I see what your claim is now. (I had missed the $(-1)^n$ since the question title was about the absolute series.) It does seem like it might be a difficult bound for a Calc II student to prove.
            $endgroup$
            – C Monsour
            May 6 '18 at 5:55




            $begingroup$
            OK, I see what your claim is now. (I had missed the $(-1)^n$ since the question title was about the absolute series.) It does seem like it might be a difficult bound for a Calc II student to prove.
            $endgroup$
            – C Monsour
            May 6 '18 at 5:55












            $begingroup$
            Jacky.Very nice, clear and concise.Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Peter Szilas
            May 6 '18 at 6:51




            $begingroup$
            Jacky.Very nice, clear and concise.Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Peter Szilas
            May 6 '18 at 6:51


















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