Let $X_n$ and $U_n$ be independent, with $P(X_n = 0, i.o.) = 1$ and $P(U_n = 0, i.o.)$, show that $P(X_n = 0,...

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Let $X_n$ and $U_n$ be independent, with $P(X_n = 0, i.o.) = 1$ and $P(U_n = 0, i.o.)$, show that $P(X_n = 0, U_{n+1} =0, i.o.) = 1$



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Identify the smallest $c$ such that $P(|X_n| ge c sqrt{ln n} text{ i.o.}) = 0$ for normally distributed $X_n$$P(X_n < a$ i.o. and $X_n > b$ i.o.$) = 0$ for all $a < b$ implies that $lim_{n rightarrow infty} X_n$ exists a.e.If $P(X_nne0 text{i.o.})=1$ then $P(c_n|X_n|>1 text{i.o.})=1$ for some suitable sequence $(c_n)$Let $X_1, X_2, ..$ be independent with $E(X_n)=0, var(X_n)={sigma_{n}}^2$.Show that if $P(|X_n|>epsilon text{ i.o.} ) =0$ for every $epsilon>0$ then $X_nto 0$ almost surelyIf $E(X_n)=0$ and $E(X_n^2)=1$ then$P(X_nge n,i.o.)=0$Show $P(|X_n| geq n i.o) = 1$ for $X_i$ iid, $X_i not in L^1$.$X_n to X$ a.s. iff $mathbb{P}(|X_n-X|>epsilon_n , , text{i.o.})=0$ for some $epsilon_n to 0$Markov chain with transiency and absorptionIf $P(X_n =0 i.o.) = 1$ and $P(X_{n+1} = 1 | X_n=0) = c > 0$ for all $n$, then $P(X_n =1 i.o.) = 1$












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Let $X_n$ and $U_n$ be independent, with $P(X_n = 0 i.o.) = 1$ and $P(U_n = 0 i.o.)$, show that $P(X_n = 0, U_{n+1} =0, i.o.) = 1$.



Does this require additional assumptions to be true?










share|cite|improve this question











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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $X_n$ and $U_n$ be independent, with $P(X_n = 0 i.o.) = 1$ and $P(U_n = 0 i.o.)$, show that $P(X_n = 0, U_{n+1} =0, i.o.) = 1$.



    Does this require additional assumptions to be true?










    share|cite|improve this question











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      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $X_n$ and $U_n$ be independent, with $P(X_n = 0 i.o.) = 1$ and $P(U_n = 0 i.o.)$, show that $P(X_n = 0, U_{n+1} =0, i.o.) = 1$.



      Does this require additional assumptions to be true?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $X_n$ and $U_n$ be independent, with $P(X_n = 0 i.o.) = 1$ and $P(U_n = 0 i.o.)$, show that $P(X_n = 0, U_{n+1} =0, i.o.) = 1$.



      Does this require additional assumptions to be true?







      probability probability-theory






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 26 at 12:06







      jackson5

















      asked Mar 26 at 11:21









      jackson5jackson5

      701513




      701513






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Answer to the question before it was modified:



          Let $X_n=1$ for $n$ odd, $0$ for $n$ even and $U_n=X_n$ for all $n$. Then $X_n=0$ implies $U_{n+1} neq 0$ so the conclusion is false.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            But $U_n$ and $X_n$ are independent here, how can we have $U_n = X_n$??
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:53










          • $begingroup$
            All the random variables I have defined are constant random variables. Any constant random variable is independent of itself!. @jackson5
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 26 at 11:54










          • $begingroup$
            Oh yes, of course! What are some minimal conditions I can put on X_n, U_n to make this true? What if U_n is Bernoulli(1/2)?
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:59










          • $begingroup$
            Ok, I will ask a new question
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 12:05












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          $begingroup$

          Answer to the question before it was modified:



          Let $X_n=1$ for $n$ odd, $0$ for $n$ even and $U_n=X_n$ for all $n$. Then $X_n=0$ implies $U_{n+1} neq 0$ so the conclusion is false.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            But $U_n$ and $X_n$ are independent here, how can we have $U_n = X_n$??
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:53










          • $begingroup$
            All the random variables I have defined are constant random variables. Any constant random variable is independent of itself!. @jackson5
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 26 at 11:54










          • $begingroup$
            Oh yes, of course! What are some minimal conditions I can put on X_n, U_n to make this true? What if U_n is Bernoulli(1/2)?
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:59










          • $begingroup$
            Ok, I will ask a new question
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 12:05
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Answer to the question before it was modified:



          Let $X_n=1$ for $n$ odd, $0$ for $n$ even and $U_n=X_n$ for all $n$. Then $X_n=0$ implies $U_{n+1} neq 0$ so the conclusion is false.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            But $U_n$ and $X_n$ are independent here, how can we have $U_n = X_n$??
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:53










          • $begingroup$
            All the random variables I have defined are constant random variables. Any constant random variable is independent of itself!. @jackson5
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 26 at 11:54










          • $begingroup$
            Oh yes, of course! What are some minimal conditions I can put on X_n, U_n to make this true? What if U_n is Bernoulli(1/2)?
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:59










          • $begingroup$
            Ok, I will ask a new question
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 12:05














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Answer to the question before it was modified:



          Let $X_n=1$ for $n$ odd, $0$ for $n$ even and $U_n=X_n$ for all $n$. Then $X_n=0$ implies $U_{n+1} neq 0$ so the conclusion is false.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Answer to the question before it was modified:



          Let $X_n=1$ for $n$ odd, $0$ for $n$ even and $U_n=X_n$ for all $n$. Then $X_n=0$ implies $U_{n+1} neq 0$ so the conclusion is false.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 26 at 12:01

























          answered Mar 26 at 11:50









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          76.6k53471




          76.6k53471












          • $begingroup$
            But $U_n$ and $X_n$ are independent here, how can we have $U_n = X_n$??
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:53










          • $begingroup$
            All the random variables I have defined are constant random variables. Any constant random variable is independent of itself!. @jackson5
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 26 at 11:54










          • $begingroup$
            Oh yes, of course! What are some minimal conditions I can put on X_n, U_n to make this true? What if U_n is Bernoulli(1/2)?
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:59










          • $begingroup$
            Ok, I will ask a new question
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 12:05


















          • $begingroup$
            But $U_n$ and $X_n$ are independent here, how can we have $U_n = X_n$??
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:53










          • $begingroup$
            All the random variables I have defined are constant random variables. Any constant random variable is independent of itself!. @jackson5
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Mar 26 at 11:54










          • $begingroup$
            Oh yes, of course! What are some minimal conditions I can put on X_n, U_n to make this true? What if U_n is Bernoulli(1/2)?
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 11:59










          • $begingroup$
            Ok, I will ask a new question
            $endgroup$
            – jackson5
            Mar 26 at 12:05
















          $begingroup$
          But $U_n$ and $X_n$ are independent here, how can we have $U_n = X_n$??
          $endgroup$
          – jackson5
          Mar 26 at 11:53




          $begingroup$
          But $U_n$ and $X_n$ are independent here, how can we have $U_n = X_n$??
          $endgroup$
          – jackson5
          Mar 26 at 11:53












          $begingroup$
          All the random variables I have defined are constant random variables. Any constant random variable is independent of itself!. @jackson5
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 26 at 11:54




          $begingroup$
          All the random variables I have defined are constant random variables. Any constant random variable is independent of itself!. @jackson5
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Mar 26 at 11:54












          $begingroup$
          Oh yes, of course! What are some minimal conditions I can put on X_n, U_n to make this true? What if U_n is Bernoulli(1/2)?
          $endgroup$
          – jackson5
          Mar 26 at 11:59




          $begingroup$
          Oh yes, of course! What are some minimal conditions I can put on X_n, U_n to make this true? What if U_n is Bernoulli(1/2)?
          $endgroup$
          – jackson5
          Mar 26 at 11:59












          $begingroup$
          Ok, I will ask a new question
          $endgroup$
          – jackson5
          Mar 26 at 12:05




          $begingroup$
          Ok, I will ask a new question
          $endgroup$
          – jackson5
          Mar 26 at 12:05


















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