On uniform convergence Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara ...
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On uniform convergence
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)A question on uniform convergenceUniform convergence of a sequence of functions?Uniform Convergence. Real AnalysisShowing uniform convergence of a sequence of functions which are inherited from a different functionClarity regarding a proof on uniform convergenceUniform convergence of indicatorsEquivalent formulation of uniform continuity (uniform convergence of shifted functions)Uniform convergence of productsUniform convergence and continuous functionUniform Convergence of $f_n^k$ and polynomial
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Let $f:mathbb{R}times [0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and ${x_n}$ a sequence of real numbers converging to $x$. Define
$g_n(y)=f(x_n,y)$, $0leq yleq1$,
$g(y)=f(x,y)$, $0leq yleq1$.
Show that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $[0,1]$.
I don't need a complete solution, but a bit of direction would be extremely useful. Thank you!
real-analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f:mathbb{R}times [0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and ${x_n}$ a sequence of real numbers converging to $x$. Define
$g_n(y)=f(x_n,y)$, $0leq yleq1$,
$g(y)=f(x,y)$, $0leq yleq1$.
Show that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $[0,1]$.
I don't need a complete solution, but a bit of direction would be extremely useful. Thank you!
real-analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I would suggest using the fact that $[x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon]times[0,1]$ is compact for all $varepsilon>0$.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@FlorisClaassens Yes, I was thinking of using compactness too. I have, in fact, given an answer here myself. Does that look okay?
$endgroup$
– WhySee
Mar 26 at 11:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f:mathbb{R}times [0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and ${x_n}$ a sequence of real numbers converging to $x$. Define
$g_n(y)=f(x_n,y)$, $0leq yleq1$,
$g(y)=f(x,y)$, $0leq yleq1$.
Show that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $[0,1]$.
I don't need a complete solution, but a bit of direction would be extremely useful. Thank you!
real-analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
Let $f:mathbb{R}times [0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and ${x_n}$ a sequence of real numbers converging to $x$. Define
$g_n(y)=f(x_n,y)$, $0leq yleq1$,
$g(y)=f(x,y)$, $0leq yleq1$.
Show that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $[0,1]$.
I don't need a complete solution, but a bit of direction would be extremely useful. Thank you!
real-analysis uniform-convergence
real-analysis uniform-convergence
asked Mar 26 at 11:16
WhySeeWhySee
36729
36729
$begingroup$
I would suggest using the fact that $[x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon]times[0,1]$ is compact for all $varepsilon>0$.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@FlorisClaassens Yes, I was thinking of using compactness too. I have, in fact, given an answer here myself. Does that look okay?
$endgroup$
– WhySee
Mar 26 at 11:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I would suggest using the fact that $[x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon]times[0,1]$ is compact for all $varepsilon>0$.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@FlorisClaassens Yes, I was thinking of using compactness too. I have, in fact, given an answer here myself. Does that look okay?
$endgroup$
– WhySee
Mar 26 at 11:41
$begingroup$
I would suggest using the fact that $[x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon]times[0,1]$ is compact for all $varepsilon>0$.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:26
$begingroup$
I would suggest using the fact that $[x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon]times[0,1]$ is compact for all $varepsilon>0$.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:26
$begingroup$
@FlorisClaassens Yes, I was thinking of using compactness too. I have, in fact, given an answer here myself. Does that look okay?
$endgroup$
– WhySee
Mar 26 at 11:41
$begingroup$
@FlorisClaassens Yes, I was thinking of using compactness too. I have, in fact, given an answer here myself. Does that look okay?
$endgroup$
– WhySee
Mar 26 at 11:41
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $K={x,x_1,x_2,cdots}$. Then $K$ is a compact set and $f$ is continuous, hence uniformly continuous on $K times [0,1]$. Now just write down the definition of uniform continuity and you will get the conclusion.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Credit to Kavi.
$f$ is uniformly continuos on $K={x,x_1,x_2,...}×[0,y],$ compact.
$epsilon >0$ given, there exists a $delta >0$ s.t.
$||(x,'y')-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y')-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
With $y'=y$:
$||(x',y)-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$|x'-x| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
Since $x_n$ converges to $x$:
For a $delta >0$ there is a $n_0$ s.t.
for $n ge n_0$ :
We have $|x_n -x| lt delta$ which implies
$|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $epsilon>0$ be given.
Now, $left|g_n(y)-g(y)right|=left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|$
As $f$ is continuous, therefore for each $yinleft[0,1right]$, $exists N_{epsilon,y}inmathbb{N}$ such that $left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N_{epsilon,y}$.
Now, $left[0,1right]=bigcup_{yinleft[0,1right]}(y-epsilon,y+epsilon)$. As $left[0,1right]$ is compact, there exists a finite subcover. Thus, there exists $minmathbb{N}$ such that $left[0,1right]=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{m}(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$. Now any $yinleft[0,1right]$ belongs to one of the intervals $(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$ for some $i$. Thus, taking $N=$ max${N_{epsilon,y_i}: i=1,2,...,m}$, we get that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $left[0,1right]$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That does not work as there is no guarantee that $|f(x_{n},y)-f(x_{n},y_{i}|<varepsilon$ for any $yin(y_{i}-varepsilon,y_{i}+varepsilon)$. I'd suggest the following: As $f$ is continuous for all $y$ there exists a $delta_{y}>0$ such that for all $(a,b)in(x-delta,x+delta)times(y-delta,y+delta)$ we have $|f(x,y)-f(a,b)|<varepsilon$. You can then use the fact that ${x}times[0,1]$ is compact. (This time I actually worked out a proper solution, so I'm certain this approach will work.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a certainly much cleaner way (tbh, I didn't check your solution properly):
We want to show that $g_n$ converges uniformly to $g$, which is the same as asking that $$lim_{n to + infty} sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert =0.$$ Now observe that $vert g_n(y)-g(y)vert$ is a continuous function on $[0,1]$ for each $n$, hence it attains its maximum. Therefore denote $y_n in [0,1]$ such that $$sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert = vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert.$$ At the same time we have $$vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert=vert f(x_n,y_n)-f(x,y_n) vert.$$ Since $[0,1]$ is compact, we can pick a subsequence $y_{n_k}$ such that $y_{n_k}$ converges to some $y$ and as $x_n$ already converges to $x$ and so will its corresponding subsequence $x_{n_k}$.
Using that $f$ is continuous in both entries now gives the desired claim:
$$lim_{n to infty}sup_{y in [0,1]}vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert=lim_{k to infty} vert f(x_{n_k},y_{n_k})-f(x,y_{n_k})vert=0. $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $K={x,x_1,x_2,cdots}$. Then $K$ is a compact set and $f$ is continuous, hence uniformly continuous on $K times [0,1]$. Now just write down the definition of uniform continuity and you will get the conclusion.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $K={x,x_1,x_2,cdots}$. Then $K$ is a compact set and $f$ is continuous, hence uniformly continuous on $K times [0,1]$. Now just write down the definition of uniform continuity and you will get the conclusion.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $K={x,x_1,x_2,cdots}$. Then $K$ is a compact set and $f$ is continuous, hence uniformly continuous on $K times [0,1]$. Now just write down the definition of uniform continuity and you will get the conclusion.
$endgroup$
Let $K={x,x_1,x_2,cdots}$. Then $K$ is a compact set and $f$ is continuous, hence uniformly continuous on $K times [0,1]$. Now just write down the definition of uniform continuity and you will get the conclusion.
answered Mar 26 at 12:19
Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy
76.6k53471
76.6k53471
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Credit to Kavi.
$f$ is uniformly continuos on $K={x,x_1,x_2,...}×[0,y],$ compact.
$epsilon >0$ given, there exists a $delta >0$ s.t.
$||(x,'y')-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y')-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
With $y'=y$:
$||(x',y)-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$|x'-x| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
Since $x_n$ converges to $x$:
For a $delta >0$ there is a $n_0$ s.t.
for $n ge n_0$ :
We have $|x_n -x| lt delta$ which implies
$|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Credit to Kavi.
$f$ is uniformly continuos on $K={x,x_1,x_2,...}×[0,y],$ compact.
$epsilon >0$ given, there exists a $delta >0$ s.t.
$||(x,'y')-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y')-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
With $y'=y$:
$||(x',y)-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$|x'-x| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
Since $x_n$ converges to $x$:
For a $delta >0$ there is a $n_0$ s.t.
for $n ge n_0$ :
We have $|x_n -x| lt delta$ which implies
$|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Credit to Kavi.
$f$ is uniformly continuos on $K={x,x_1,x_2,...}×[0,y],$ compact.
$epsilon >0$ given, there exists a $delta >0$ s.t.
$||(x,'y')-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y')-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
With $y'=y$:
$||(x',y)-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$|x'-x| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
Since $x_n$ converges to $x$:
For a $delta >0$ there is a $n_0$ s.t.
for $n ge n_0$ :
We have $|x_n -x| lt delta$ which implies
$|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
$endgroup$
Credit to Kavi.
$f$ is uniformly continuos on $K={x,x_1,x_2,...}×[0,y],$ compact.
$epsilon >0$ given, there exists a $delta >0$ s.t.
$||(x,'y')-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y')-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
With $y'=y$:
$||(x',y)-(x,y)|| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$|x'-x| lt delta$ implies
$|f(x',y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
Since $x_n$ converges to $x$:
For a $delta >0$ there is a $n_0$ s.t.
for $n ge n_0$ :
We have $|x_n -x| lt delta$ which implies
$|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)| lt epsilon$.
answered Mar 26 at 19:27
Peter SzilasPeter Szilas
12k2822
12k2822
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $epsilon>0$ be given.
Now, $left|g_n(y)-g(y)right|=left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|$
As $f$ is continuous, therefore for each $yinleft[0,1right]$, $exists N_{epsilon,y}inmathbb{N}$ such that $left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N_{epsilon,y}$.
Now, $left[0,1right]=bigcup_{yinleft[0,1right]}(y-epsilon,y+epsilon)$. As $left[0,1right]$ is compact, there exists a finite subcover. Thus, there exists $minmathbb{N}$ such that $left[0,1right]=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{m}(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$. Now any $yinleft[0,1right]$ belongs to one of the intervals $(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$ for some $i$. Thus, taking $N=$ max${N_{epsilon,y_i}: i=1,2,...,m}$, we get that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $left[0,1right]$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That does not work as there is no guarantee that $|f(x_{n},y)-f(x_{n},y_{i}|<varepsilon$ for any $yin(y_{i}-varepsilon,y_{i}+varepsilon)$. I'd suggest the following: As $f$ is continuous for all $y$ there exists a $delta_{y}>0$ such that for all $(a,b)in(x-delta,x+delta)times(y-delta,y+delta)$ we have $|f(x,y)-f(a,b)|<varepsilon$. You can then use the fact that ${x}times[0,1]$ is compact. (This time I actually worked out a proper solution, so I'm certain this approach will work.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $epsilon>0$ be given.
Now, $left|g_n(y)-g(y)right|=left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|$
As $f$ is continuous, therefore for each $yinleft[0,1right]$, $exists N_{epsilon,y}inmathbb{N}$ such that $left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N_{epsilon,y}$.
Now, $left[0,1right]=bigcup_{yinleft[0,1right]}(y-epsilon,y+epsilon)$. As $left[0,1right]$ is compact, there exists a finite subcover. Thus, there exists $minmathbb{N}$ such that $left[0,1right]=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{m}(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$. Now any $yinleft[0,1right]$ belongs to one of the intervals $(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$ for some $i$. Thus, taking $N=$ max${N_{epsilon,y_i}: i=1,2,...,m}$, we get that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $left[0,1right]$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That does not work as there is no guarantee that $|f(x_{n},y)-f(x_{n},y_{i}|<varepsilon$ for any $yin(y_{i}-varepsilon,y_{i}+varepsilon)$. I'd suggest the following: As $f$ is continuous for all $y$ there exists a $delta_{y}>0$ such that for all $(a,b)in(x-delta,x+delta)times(y-delta,y+delta)$ we have $|f(x,y)-f(a,b)|<varepsilon$. You can then use the fact that ${x}times[0,1]$ is compact. (This time I actually worked out a proper solution, so I'm certain this approach will work.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $epsilon>0$ be given.
Now, $left|g_n(y)-g(y)right|=left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|$
As $f$ is continuous, therefore for each $yinleft[0,1right]$, $exists N_{epsilon,y}inmathbb{N}$ such that $left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N_{epsilon,y}$.
Now, $left[0,1right]=bigcup_{yinleft[0,1right]}(y-epsilon,y+epsilon)$. As $left[0,1right]$ is compact, there exists a finite subcover. Thus, there exists $minmathbb{N}$ such that $left[0,1right]=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{m}(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$. Now any $yinleft[0,1right]$ belongs to one of the intervals $(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$ for some $i$. Thus, taking $N=$ max${N_{epsilon,y_i}: i=1,2,...,m}$, we get that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $left[0,1right]$.
$endgroup$
Let $epsilon>0$ be given.
Now, $left|g_n(y)-g(y)right|=left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|$
As $f$ is continuous, therefore for each $yinleft[0,1right]$, $exists N_{epsilon,y}inmathbb{N}$ such that $left|f(x_n,y)-f(x,y)right|<epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N_{epsilon,y}$.
Now, $left[0,1right]=bigcup_{yinleft[0,1right]}(y-epsilon,y+epsilon)$. As $left[0,1right]$ is compact, there exists a finite subcover. Thus, there exists $minmathbb{N}$ such that $left[0,1right]=bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{m}(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$. Now any $yinleft[0,1right]$ belongs to one of the intervals $(y_i-epsilon,y_i+epsilon)$ for some $i$. Thus, taking $N=$ max${N_{epsilon,y_i}: i=1,2,...,m}$, we get that $g_n$ converges to $g$ uniformly on $left[0,1right]$.
answered Mar 26 at 11:40
WhySeeWhySee
36729
36729
1
$begingroup$
That does not work as there is no guarantee that $|f(x_{n},y)-f(x_{n},y_{i}|<varepsilon$ for any $yin(y_{i}-varepsilon,y_{i}+varepsilon)$. I'd suggest the following: As $f$ is continuous for all $y$ there exists a $delta_{y}>0$ such that for all $(a,b)in(x-delta,x+delta)times(y-delta,y+delta)$ we have $|f(x,y)-f(a,b)|<varepsilon$. You can then use the fact that ${x}times[0,1]$ is compact. (This time I actually worked out a proper solution, so I'm certain this approach will work.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:53
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
That does not work as there is no guarantee that $|f(x_{n},y)-f(x_{n},y_{i}|<varepsilon$ for any $yin(y_{i}-varepsilon,y_{i}+varepsilon)$. I'd suggest the following: As $f$ is continuous for all $y$ there exists a $delta_{y}>0$ such that for all $(a,b)in(x-delta,x+delta)times(y-delta,y+delta)$ we have $|f(x,y)-f(a,b)|<varepsilon$. You can then use the fact that ${x}times[0,1]$ is compact. (This time I actually worked out a proper solution, so I'm certain this approach will work.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:53
1
1
$begingroup$
That does not work as there is no guarantee that $|f(x_{n},y)-f(x_{n},y_{i}|<varepsilon$ for any $yin(y_{i}-varepsilon,y_{i}+varepsilon)$. I'd suggest the following: As $f$ is continuous for all $y$ there exists a $delta_{y}>0$ such that for all $(a,b)in(x-delta,x+delta)times(y-delta,y+delta)$ we have $|f(x,y)-f(a,b)|<varepsilon$. You can then use the fact that ${x}times[0,1]$ is compact. (This time I actually worked out a proper solution, so I'm certain this approach will work.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:53
$begingroup$
That does not work as there is no guarantee that $|f(x_{n},y)-f(x_{n},y_{i}|<varepsilon$ for any $yin(y_{i}-varepsilon,y_{i}+varepsilon)$. I'd suggest the following: As $f$ is continuous for all $y$ there exists a $delta_{y}>0$ such that for all $(a,b)in(x-delta,x+delta)times(y-delta,y+delta)$ we have $|f(x,y)-f(a,b)|<varepsilon$. You can then use the fact that ${x}times[0,1]$ is compact. (This time I actually worked out a proper solution, so I'm certain this approach will work.
$endgroup$
– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a certainly much cleaner way (tbh, I didn't check your solution properly):
We want to show that $g_n$ converges uniformly to $g$, which is the same as asking that $$lim_{n to + infty} sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert =0.$$ Now observe that $vert g_n(y)-g(y)vert$ is a continuous function on $[0,1]$ for each $n$, hence it attains its maximum. Therefore denote $y_n in [0,1]$ such that $$sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert = vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert.$$ At the same time we have $$vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert=vert f(x_n,y_n)-f(x,y_n) vert.$$ Since $[0,1]$ is compact, we can pick a subsequence $y_{n_k}$ such that $y_{n_k}$ converges to some $y$ and as $x_n$ already converges to $x$ and so will its corresponding subsequence $x_{n_k}$.
Using that $f$ is continuous in both entries now gives the desired claim:
$$lim_{n to infty}sup_{y in [0,1]}vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert=lim_{k to infty} vert f(x_{n_k},y_{n_k})-f(x,y_{n_k})vert=0. $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here's a certainly much cleaner way (tbh, I didn't check your solution properly):
We want to show that $g_n$ converges uniformly to $g$, which is the same as asking that $$lim_{n to + infty} sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert =0.$$ Now observe that $vert g_n(y)-g(y)vert$ is a continuous function on $[0,1]$ for each $n$, hence it attains its maximum. Therefore denote $y_n in [0,1]$ such that $$sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert = vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert.$$ At the same time we have $$vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert=vert f(x_n,y_n)-f(x,y_n) vert.$$ Since $[0,1]$ is compact, we can pick a subsequence $y_{n_k}$ such that $y_{n_k}$ converges to some $y$ and as $x_n$ already converges to $x$ and so will its corresponding subsequence $x_{n_k}$.
Using that $f$ is continuous in both entries now gives the desired claim:
$$lim_{n to infty}sup_{y in [0,1]}vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert=lim_{k to infty} vert f(x_{n_k},y_{n_k})-f(x,y_{n_k})vert=0. $$
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$begingroup$
Here's a certainly much cleaner way (tbh, I didn't check your solution properly):
We want to show that $g_n$ converges uniformly to $g$, which is the same as asking that $$lim_{n to + infty} sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert =0.$$ Now observe that $vert g_n(y)-g(y)vert$ is a continuous function on $[0,1]$ for each $n$, hence it attains its maximum. Therefore denote $y_n in [0,1]$ such that $$sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert = vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert.$$ At the same time we have $$vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert=vert f(x_n,y_n)-f(x,y_n) vert.$$ Since $[0,1]$ is compact, we can pick a subsequence $y_{n_k}$ such that $y_{n_k}$ converges to some $y$ and as $x_n$ already converges to $x$ and so will its corresponding subsequence $x_{n_k}$.
Using that $f$ is continuous in both entries now gives the desired claim:
$$lim_{n to infty}sup_{y in [0,1]}vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert=lim_{k to infty} vert f(x_{n_k},y_{n_k})-f(x,y_{n_k})vert=0. $$
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Here's a certainly much cleaner way (tbh, I didn't check your solution properly):
We want to show that $g_n$ converges uniformly to $g$, which is the same as asking that $$lim_{n to + infty} sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert =0.$$ Now observe that $vert g_n(y)-g(y)vert$ is a continuous function on $[0,1]$ for each $n$, hence it attains its maximum. Therefore denote $y_n in [0,1]$ such that $$sup_{y in [0,1]} vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert = vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert.$$ At the same time we have $$vert g_n(y_n)-g(y_n) vert=vert f(x_n,y_n)-f(x,y_n) vert.$$ Since $[0,1]$ is compact, we can pick a subsequence $y_{n_k}$ such that $y_{n_k}$ converges to some $y$ and as $x_n$ already converges to $x$ and so will its corresponding subsequence $x_{n_k}$.
Using that $f$ is continuous in both entries now gives the desired claim:
$$lim_{n to infty}sup_{y in [0,1]}vert g_n(y)-g(y) vert=lim_{k to infty} vert f(x_{n_k},y_{n_k})-f(x,y_{n_k})vert=0. $$
answered Mar 26 at 11:57
noctusraidnoctusraid
8791727
8791727
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I would suggest using the fact that $[x-varepsilon,x+varepsilon]times[0,1]$ is compact for all $varepsilon>0$.
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– Floris Claassens
Mar 26 at 11:26
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@FlorisClaassens Yes, I was thinking of using compactness too. I have, in fact, given an answer here myself. Does that look okay?
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– WhySee
Mar 26 at 11:41