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Rotate function, in respect to another function


Calculating page numbers to link toEasing function, constant velocity then decelerate to zeroDesigning very simple functionRepresentation for a function that, when added/multiplied/composed with another function of the same form, yields a new function of the same formCalculate a ratio from part of a range.How does one rotate a function?How to create the smallest possible unique number from one or many unordered numbers?Tests for my “LineGraph-from-AdjacencyMatrix” functionThe connection between the Collatz Conjecture and the Optic EquationHow does one mathematically in closed form describe a valley or a wedge in 2D?













0












$begingroup$


I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1



So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:
enter image description here



to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):



enter image description here



Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
    $endgroup$
    – JoeBruzek
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday
















0












$begingroup$


I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1



So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:
enter image description here



to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):



enter image description here



Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
    $endgroup$
    – JoeBruzek
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1



So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:
enter image description here



to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):



enter image description here



Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1



So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:
enter image description here



to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):



enter image description here



Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?







algebra-precalculus functions graphing-functions






share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question






New contributor




JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked yesterday









JoeBruzekJoeBruzek

1012




1012




New contributor




JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • $begingroup$
    Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
    $endgroup$
    – JoeBruzek
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday


















  • $begingroup$
    Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
    $endgroup$
    – JoeBruzek
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    yesterday
















$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday






$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday














$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday




$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday












$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday




$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
$$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
$$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
$$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
costheta&-sintheta\
sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
end{pmatrix}
begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
=(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$

where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
$$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
$$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
Putting everything together yields the transformation
begin{eqnarray*}
F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
&=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
end{eqnarray*}

This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
$$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    So you are doing several operations:




    1. You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin

    2. You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$

    3. You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$


    The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
    $$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
    Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
    $$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
    Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$



    See if this does what you want.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      0












      $begingroup$

      $t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!



      Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        But this is a different curve. Since it approaches (1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
        $endgroup$
        – JoeBruzek
        yesterday










      • $begingroup$
        I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
        $endgroup$
        – R_B
        yesterday











      Your Answer





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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2












      $begingroup$

      Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
      $$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
      Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
      $$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
      ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
      $$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
      costheta&-sintheta\
      sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
      end{pmatrix}
      begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
      =(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$

      where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
      Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
      $$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
      Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
      $$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
      Putting everything together yields the transformation
      begin{eqnarray*}
      F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
      &=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
      end{eqnarray*}

      This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
      $$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
        $$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
        Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
        $$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
        ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
        $$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
        costheta&-sintheta\
        sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
        end{pmatrix}
        begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
        =(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$

        where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
        Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
        $$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
        Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
        $$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
        Putting everything together yields the transformation
        begin{eqnarray*}
        F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
        &=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
        end{eqnarray*}

        This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
        $$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
          $$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
          Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
          $$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
          ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
          $$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
          costheta&-sintheta\
          sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
          end{pmatrix}
          begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
          =(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$

          where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
          Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
          $$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
          Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
          $$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
          Putting everything together yields the transformation
          begin{eqnarray*}
          F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
          &=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
          end{eqnarray*}

          This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
          $$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
          $$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
          Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
          $$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
          ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
          $$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
          costheta&-sintheta\
          sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
          end{pmatrix}
          begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
          =(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$

          where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
          Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
          $$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
          Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
          $$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
          Putting everything together yields the transformation
          begin{eqnarray*}
          F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
          &=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
          end{eqnarray*}

          This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
          $$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered yesterday









          ServaesServaes

          27.5k34098




          27.5k34098























              1












              $begingroup$

              So you are doing several operations:




              1. You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin

              2. You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$

              3. You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$


              The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
              $$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
              Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
              $$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
              Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$



              See if this does what you want.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                So you are doing several operations:




                1. You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin

                2. You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$

                3. You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$


                The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
                $$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
                Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
                $$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
                Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$



                See if this does what you want.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  So you are doing several operations:




                  1. You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin

                  2. You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$

                  3. You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$


                  The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
                  $$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
                  Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
                  $$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
                  Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$



                  See if this does what you want.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  So you are doing several operations:




                  1. You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin

                  2. You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$

                  3. You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$


                  The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
                  $$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
                  Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
                  $$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
                  Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$



                  See if this does what you want.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered yesterday









                  AndreiAndrei

                  13k21230




                  13k21230























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      $t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!



                      Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        But this is a different curve. Since it approaches (1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
                        $endgroup$
                        – JoeBruzek
                        yesterday










                      • $begingroup$
                        I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
                        $endgroup$
                        – R_B
                        yesterday
















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      $t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!



                      Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        But this is a different curve. Since it approaches (1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
                        $endgroup$
                        – JoeBruzek
                        yesterday










                      • $begingroup$
                        I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
                        $endgroup$
                        – R_B
                        yesterday














                      0












                      0








                      0





                      $begingroup$

                      $t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!



                      Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      $t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!



                      Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered yesterday









                      R_BR_B

                      563110




                      563110








                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        But this is a different curve. Since it approaches (1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
                        $endgroup$
                        – JoeBruzek
                        yesterday










                      • $begingroup$
                        I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
                        $endgroup$
                        – R_B
                        yesterday














                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        But this is a different curve. Since it approaches (1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
                        $endgroup$
                        – JoeBruzek
                        yesterday










                      • $begingroup$
                        I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
                        $endgroup$
                        – R_B
                        yesterday








                      1




                      1




                      $begingroup$
                      But this is a different curve. Since it approaches (1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
                      $endgroup$
                      – JoeBruzek
                      yesterday




                      $begingroup$
                      But this is a different curve. Since it approaches (1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
                      $endgroup$
                      – JoeBruzek
                      yesterday












                      $begingroup$
                      I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
                      $endgroup$
                      – R_B
                      yesterday




                      $begingroup$
                      I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
                      $endgroup$
                      – R_B
                      yesterday










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