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Rotate function, in respect to another function
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$begingroup$
I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1
So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:

to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):

Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?
algebra-precalculus functions graphing-functions
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1
So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:

to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):

Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?
algebra-precalculus functions graphing-functions
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1
So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:

to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):

Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?
algebra-precalculus functions graphing-functions
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
I am working on a piece of code where I am translating some points along a function, for easing an animation. For example, I have a cubic easing function of f(t) = t^3. However, I want the easing function to return a ratio of where to adjust the point in relation to a linear ease. So instead of having the cubic function above move from (0, 0) to (1, 1), it would move from (0, 1) to (1, 1). In other terms, the line y = x that intersects the curve at the edges should instead be y = 1
So, to put it into pictures, (in case I'm not wording it appropriately) I want to go from this:

to this (edited graph to show what I'm envisioning):

Is there a reasonable way to calculate this?
algebra-precalculus functions graphing-functions
algebra-precalculus functions graphing-functions
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked yesterday
JoeBruzekJoeBruzek
1012
1012
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
JoeBruzek is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
$$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
$$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
$$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
costheta&-sintheta\
sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
end{pmatrix}
begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
=(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$
where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
$$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
$$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
Putting everything together yields the transformation
begin{eqnarray*}
F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
&=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
end{eqnarray*}
This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
$$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So you are doing several operations:
- You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin
- You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$
- You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$
The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
$$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
$$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$
See if this does what you want.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!
Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
But this is a different curve. Since it approaches(1, 1)at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis andx = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross overx = 1and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
$endgroup$
– R_B
yesterday
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
$$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
$$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
$$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
costheta&-sintheta\
sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
end{pmatrix}
begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
=(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$
where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
$$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
$$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
Putting everything together yields the transformation
begin{eqnarray*}
F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
&=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
end{eqnarray*}
This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
$$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
$$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
$$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
$$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
costheta&-sintheta\
sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
end{pmatrix}
begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
=(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$
where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
$$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
$$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
Putting everything together yields the transformation
begin{eqnarray*}
F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
&=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
end{eqnarray*}
This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
$$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
$$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
$$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
$$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
costheta&-sintheta\
sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
end{pmatrix}
begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
=(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$
where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
$$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
$$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
Putting everything together yields the transformation
begin{eqnarray*}
F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
&=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
end{eqnarray*}
This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
$$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
$endgroup$
Let $f(t)$ be a function defined on the interval $(0,1)$. Then the line segment from $(0,f(0))$ to $(1,f(1))$ should end up as the line segment from $(0,1)$ to $(0,1)$. First shift everything up/down by $1-f(0)$ so that the line segment starts at the origin $(0,0)$. That is, apply the translation
$$T_1(x,y)=(x,y-f(0)).$$
Next, rotate the plane about the origin so that the other endpoint, which is now at
$$T_1(1,f(1))=(1,f(1)-f(0)),$$
ends up on the $x$-axis. This can be done by the applying rotation map
$$R(x,y):=begin{pmatrix}
costheta&-sintheta\
sintheta&hphantom{-}costheta
end{pmatrix}
begin{pmatrix}x\yend{pmatrix}
=(xcostheta-ysintheta,xsintheta+ycostheta),$$
where $theta=-arctan(f(1))$.
Now we can scale the whole picture so that the line segment becomes $1$ long; apply
$$S(x,y)=left(frac{x}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{y}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
Finally, shift everything up by $1$, which is simply
$$T_2(x,y)=(x,y+1).$$
Putting everything together yields the transformation
begin{eqnarray*}
F(x,y)&=&(T_2circ Scirc Rcirc T_1)(x,y)\
&=&left(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|},frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1right).
end{eqnarray*}
This means that if your original function was $y=f(x)$, now your function is given by the implicit equation
$$frac{xsintheta+(y-f(0))costheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}+1=fleft(frac{xcostheta-(y-f(0))sintheta}{|sintheta+(f(1)-f(0))costheta|}right).$$
answered yesterday
ServaesServaes
27.5k34098
27.5k34098
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So you are doing several operations:
- You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin
- You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$
- You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$
The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
$$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
$$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$
See if this does what you want.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So you are doing several operations:
- You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin
- You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$
- You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$
The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
$$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
$$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$
See if this does what you want.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So you are doing several operations:
- You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin
- You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$
- You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$
The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
$$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
$$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$
See if this does what you want.
$endgroup$
So you are doing several operations:
- You are rotating the figure $-45^circ$ around the origin
- You are scaling the result from part 1 by multiplying with $1/sqrt 2$
- You are translating the result from part 2 up by $1$
The best way to deal with these is separately. You have an array of $x$ points, originally $x_0=t$, and $y$ points, originally $y_0=t^3$. The rotation means that you need to calculate the arrays $x_1$ and $y_1$ given by
$$x_1=x_0cos45^circ+y_0sin 45^circ\y_1=-x_0sin 45^circ+y_0cos 45^circ$$
Then for scaling along $x$ you have:
$$x_2=frac{x_1}{sqrt 2}\y_2=y_1$$
Finally, moving it up means $$x_3=x_2\y_3=y_2+1$$
See if this does what you want.
answered yesterday
AndreiAndrei
13k21230
13k21230
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!
Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
But this is a different curve. Since it approaches(1, 1)at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis andx = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross overx = 1and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
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– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
$endgroup$
– R_B
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!
Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
But this is a different curve. Since it approaches(1, 1)at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis andx = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross overx = 1and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
$endgroup$
– R_B
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!
Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.
$endgroup$
$t^3 + (1-t)$ does the trick! It's not a rotation, instead I am just adding the amount that the linear upper bound $t$ is missing to get to $1$. Hope this helps!
Edit: If you wanted something symmetric about $t=frac{1}{2}$ instead, you could try the quadratic $at(t-1)+1$ where $a>0$.
answered yesterday
R_BR_B
563110
563110
1
$begingroup$
But this is a different curve. Since it approaches(1, 1)at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis andx = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross overx = 1and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
$endgroup$
– R_B
yesterday
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
But this is a different curve. Since it approaches(1, 1)at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis andx = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross overx = 1and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
$endgroup$
– R_B
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
But this is a different curve. Since it approaches
(1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
But this is a different curve. Since it approaches
(1, 1) at a different angle it effects the animation. The original curve is bound by the x axis and x = 1. This new curve, if rotated to the same position of the original, would cross over x = 1 and then rebound to the end point. I want a translated function that still respects those bounds.$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
$endgroup$
– R_B
yesterday
$begingroup$
I think I understand what you mean, but in the second option we can choose $a$ so that the angle of approach of the point $(1,1)$ is the same. In your case, $f(t)=t^3$ so $f'(t)=3t^2$ and $f'(1)=3$. In the quadratic, $g(t)=at(t-1)+1$ so $g'(t)=2at-a+1$, and $g'(1)=a+1$. Setting $g'(1)=f'(t)$ I get $a=2$, so $2t(t-1)+1$ should look very similar to your picture, see for instance this plot. Is this any good?
$endgroup$
– R_B
yesterday
add a comment |
JoeBruzek is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
JoeBruzek is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
JoeBruzek is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
JoeBruzek is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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$begingroup$
Do you want an answer for this specific cubic function, or more general functions? Because in general, rotating a function does not result in a function, so you would need some conditions (or allow implicit functions).
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday
$begingroup$
I'm hoping for a general answer. I am working within the conditions where $0 le t le 1$
$endgroup$
– JoeBruzek
yesterday
$begingroup$
If there are any constraints on the function (continuous, differentiable, analytic, polynomial, cubic?) then a more explicit answer may be possible. In particular, if $f$ is differentiable and $f'(t)<frac{1}{f(0)-f(1)}$ for all $t$ then the rotated function is again a function.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
yesterday