Show that $ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $ The Next CEO of Stack...
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Show that $ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowShow that the alternating group $A_4$ has exactly 3 elements of order 2The formula $DeclareMathOperator{tr}{tr}mathrm{adj}(A)=tfrac{1}{2}[(tr A)^2-tr(A^2)]I_3-[tr A]A+A^2$ for the adjoint of a $3times 3$ matrixShow that the trace of A is less than nProve that if the trace of a $2times 2$ matrix over $mathbb{R}$ is $0$, then it is a linear combination of matrices of the form $XY-YX$Does there exists a non-diagonal $2 times 2$ matrix $A$, such that $A^3 =I$$3 times 3$ matrix such that $A^2=0$Proof regarding the dimension of a vector spaceIs there is any $n times n$ matrix A with real entries such that $A^2 = A$ and trace $(A) =n + 1$Simple proof that matrices similar of $E_{13}$ square to 0?Showing that Matrix $A in M_{50}(mathbb{R})$ is invertible
$begingroup$
Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$
This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!
linear-algebra abstract-algebra
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$
This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!
linear-algebra abstract-algebra
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26
1
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$
This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!
linear-algebra abstract-algebra
$endgroup$
Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$
This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!
linear-algebra abstract-algebra
linear-algebra abstract-algebra
asked Mar 18 at 0:42
Giraffes4thewinGiraffes4thewin
605
605
2
$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26
1
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26
1
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53
2
2
$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26
$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26
1
1
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is the approach that I was saying.
The form
$$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$
is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.
By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
$$begin{align}
acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
&=0
end{align}$$
Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$
Intermission:
The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.
Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.
So we do,
$$begin{align}
e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
&=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
end{align}$$
From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.
Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.
In this basis
$$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$
Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.
$$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
For any $n$
$$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
hence we need to prove that for any $m$
$$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$
Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & d_2 & 0 \
0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$ and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $
Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
z & 0 & -x \
-y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$.
Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
-d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
-d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
(d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
-(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $
Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$
Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 20 at 11:08
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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$begingroup$
This is the approach that I was saying.
The form
$$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$
is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.
By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
$$begin{align}
acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
&=0
end{align}$$
Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$
Intermission:
The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.
Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.
So we do,
$$begin{align}
e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
&=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
end{align}$$
From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.
Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is the approach that I was saying.
The form
$$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$
is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.
By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
$$begin{align}
acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
&=0
end{align}$$
Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$
Intermission:
The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.
Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.
So we do,
$$begin{align}
e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
&=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
end{align}$$
From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.
Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is the approach that I was saying.
The form
$$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$
is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.
By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
$$begin{align}
acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
&=0
end{align}$$
Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$
Intermission:
The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.
Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.
So we do,
$$begin{align}
e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
&=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
end{align}$$
From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.
Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
$endgroup$
This is the approach that I was saying.
The form
$$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$
is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.
By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
$$begin{align}
acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
&=0
end{align}$$
Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$
Intermission:
The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.
Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.
So we do,
$$begin{align}
e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
&=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
end{align}$$
From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.
Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.
edited Mar 18 at 18:39
answered Mar 18 at 17:22
user647486user647486
832110
832110
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.
In this basis
$$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$
Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.
$$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
For any $n$
$$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
hence we need to prove that for any $m$
$$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$
Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & d_2 & 0 \
0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$ and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $
Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
z & 0 & -x \
-y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$.
Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
-d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
-d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
(d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
-(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $
Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$
Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 20 at 11:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.
In this basis
$$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$
Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.
$$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
For any $n$
$$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
hence we need to prove that for any $m$
$$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$
Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & d_2 & 0 \
0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$ and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $
Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
z & 0 & -x \
-y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$.
Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
-d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
-d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
(d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
-(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $
Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$
Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 20 at 11:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.
In this basis
$$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$
Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.
$$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
For any $n$
$$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
hence we need to prove that for any $m$
$$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$
Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & d_2 & 0 \
0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$ and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $
Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
z & 0 & -x \
-y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$.
Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
-d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
-d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
(d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
-(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $
Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$
Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .
$endgroup$
The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.
In this basis
$$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$
Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.
$$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
For any $n$
$$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
hence we need to prove that for any $m$
$$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$
Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & d_2 & 0 \
0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$ and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $
Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
z & 0 & -x \
-y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$.
Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
-d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
-d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
(d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
-(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $
Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$
Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .
answered Mar 18 at 15:37
WidawensenWidawensen
4,75831446
4,75831446
$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 20 at 11:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 20 at 11:08
$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:53
$begingroup$
Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 20 at 11:08
$begingroup$
Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 20 at 11:08
add a comment |
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2
$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26
1
$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52
$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53