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Show that $ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowShow that the alternating group $A_4$ has exactly 3 elements of order 2The formula $DeclareMathOperator{tr}{tr}mathrm{adj}(A)=tfrac{1}{2}[(tr A)^2-tr(A^2)]I_3-[tr A]A+A^2$ for the adjoint of a $3times 3$ matrixShow that the trace of A is less than nProve that if the trace of a $2times 2$ matrix over $mathbb{R}$ is $0$, then it is a linear combination of matrices of the form $XY-YX$Does there exists a non-diagonal $2 times 2$ matrix $A$, such that $A^3 =I$$3 times 3$ matrix such that $A^2=0$Proof regarding the dimension of a vector spaceIs there is any $n times n$ matrix A with real entries such that $A^2 = A$ and trace $(A) =n + 1$Simple proof that matrices similar of $E_{13}$ square to 0?Showing that Matrix $A in M_{50}(mathbb{R})$ is invertible












2












$begingroup$


Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$



This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Giraffes4thewin
    Mar 18 at 15:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Widawensen
    Mar 18 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 15:53


















2












$begingroup$


Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$



This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Giraffes4thewin
    Mar 18 at 15:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Widawensen
    Mar 18 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 15:53
















2












2








2





$begingroup$


Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$



This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $S$ be a $3 times 3$ matrix which satisfies $S^T = S$ and $trace(S)=0$. Show for any $a,b in mathbb{R}^3$ that
$$ S( a times b) +(Sa) times b + a times (Sb) =0 $$



This can obviously done by a (long) brute force approach, but is there a more interesting way to approach this? Thank you!







linear-algebra abstract-algebra






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 18 at 0:42









Giraffes4thewinGiraffes4thewin

605




605








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Giraffes4thewin
    Mar 18 at 15:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Widawensen
    Mar 18 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 15:53
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Giraffes4thewin
    Mar 18 at 15:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Widawensen
    Mar 18 at 15:52










  • $begingroup$
    You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user647486
    Mar 18 at 15:53










2




2




$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07




$begingroup$
Assume first that $a,b$ are linearly independent. Them multiply the left hand side by $a$ and you will get zero. The same will happen when you multiply by $b$ and by $atimes b$. Therefore, the left hand side is orthogonal to the basis $a,b,atimes b$ and therefore it is zero. The case of $a,b$ linearly dependent is trivial when you replace $b$ by $lambda a$.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 1:07












$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26




$begingroup$
Thanks, but I can't see how you have used $trace(S)=0$ and $S^{T}=S$ ?
$endgroup$
– Giraffes4thewin
Mar 18 at 15:26




1




1




$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52




$begingroup$
@Giraffes4thewin In my answer I have used that matrix with property $S^T=S$ can be diagonalized and the trace of $S$ is preserved under change of basis where $S$ becomes diagonal $D$.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Mar 18 at 15:52












$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53






$begingroup$
You will use it in the case that you dot-multiply by $atimes b$. When you dot-multiply by $a$ and by $b$ you get zero just by using that $S$ is symmetric. The expression that you get when dot-multiplying by $atimes b$ is essentially computing the trace of the matrix of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$, which is the same as the trace of $S$, which is zero.
$endgroup$
– user647486
Mar 18 at 15:53












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

This is the approach that I was saying.



The form
$$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$



is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.



By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
$$begin{align}
acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
&=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
&=0
end{align}$$



Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$





Intermission:



The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.



Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.





So we do,
$$begin{align}
e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
&=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
end{align}$$



From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.



Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.



Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.



    In this basis



    $$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$



    Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.



    $$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
    For any $n$
    $$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
    hence we need to prove that for any $m$



    $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$



    Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
    0 & d_2 & 0 \
    0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$
    and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $



    Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
    z & 0 & -x \
    -y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$
    .



    Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
    d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
    -d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
    d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
    -d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
    (d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
    -(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $



    Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$



    Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thank you very much!
      $endgroup$
      – Giraffes4thewin
      Mar 18 at 15:52










    • $begingroup$
      @Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
      $endgroup$
      – Widawensen
      Mar 18 at 15:53










    • $begingroup$
      Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
      $endgroup$
      – Widawensen
      Mar 20 at 11:08














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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    votes









    active

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    active

    oldest

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    1












    $begingroup$

    This is the approach that I was saying.



    The form
    $$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$



    is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.



    By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
    $$begin{align}
    acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
    &=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
    &=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
    &=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
    &=0
    end{align}$$



    Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$





    Intermission:



    The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.



    Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.





    So we do,
    $$begin{align}
    e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
    &=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
    &=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
    end{align}$$



    From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.



    Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.



    Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      This is the approach that I was saying.



      The form
      $$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$



      is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.



      By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
      $$begin{align}
      acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
      &=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
      &=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
      &=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
      &=0
      end{align}$$



      Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$





      Intermission:



      The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.



      Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.





      So we do,
      $$begin{align}
      e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
      &=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
      &=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
      end{align}$$



      From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.



      Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.



      Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        This is the approach that I was saying.



        The form
        $$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$



        is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.



        By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
        $$begin{align}
        acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
        &=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
        &=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
        &=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
        &=0
        end{align}$$



        Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$





        Intermission:



        The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.



        Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.





        So we do,
        $$begin{align}
        e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
        &=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
        &=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
        end{align}$$



        From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.



        Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.



        Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        This is the approach that I was saying.



        The form
        $$g(a,b)=S(atimes b)+Satimes b+atimes Sb$$



        is linear in $a$, linear in $b$, and anti-symmetric $g(a,b)=-g(b,a)$.



        By the symmetry of $S$, and rotating those triple products.
        $$begin{align}
        acdot g(a,b)&=acdot S(atimes b)+acdot(Satimes b) + acdot(atimes Sb)\
        &=Sacdot(atimes b)+bcdot(atimes Sa) + Sbcdot(atimes a)\
        &=Sacdot(atimes b)+Sacdot(btimes a) + 0\
        &=Sacdot(atimes b)-Sacdot(atimes b)\
        &=0
        end{align}$$



        Also $$bcdot g(a,b)=-bcdot g(b,a)=0$$





        Intermission:



        The multiplication $(atimes b)cdot g(a,b)$ is essentially computing the trace of $S$ in the basis $a,b,atimes b$. Now, it seemed to me that it is even faster to just go to compute this part for the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$, only since $S$ is already a matrix in this basis, which is moreover orthogonal.



        Likewise, the computation above could just be done for $e_1,e_2,e_3$, which is all we need. But since the general case is as easy, I left it that way.





        So we do,
        $$begin{align}
        e_3cdot g(e_1,e_2)&=e_3cdot Se_3+e_3cdot (Se_1times e_2)+e_3cdot (e_1times Se_2)\
        &=e_3cdot Se_3+e_1cdot Se_1+e_2cdot Se_2\
        &=0 text{ because this is the trace of }S
        end{align}$$



        From the two computations above $e_kcdot g(e_i,e_j)$ is zero for all $i,j,kin{1,2,3}$.



        Therefore, $g(e_i,e_j)=0$ for all $i,jin{1,2,3}$, since it is orthogonal to all elements of the frame $e_1,e_2,e_3$.



        Hence $g(a,b)=0$ for all $a,b$, since the bilinear form is zero at all elements of the basis $e_1,e_2,e_3$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 18 at 18:39

























        answered Mar 18 at 17:22









        user647486user647486

        832110




        832110























            1












            $begingroup$

            The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.



            In this basis



            $$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$



            Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.



            $$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
            For any $n$
            $$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
            hence we need to prove that for any $m$



            $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$



            Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
            0 & d_2 & 0 \
            0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$
            and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $



            Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
            z & 0 & -x \
            -y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$
            .



            Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
            d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
            -d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
            d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
            -d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
            (d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
            -(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $



            Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$



            Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much!
              $endgroup$
              – Giraffes4thewin
              Mar 18 at 15:52










            • $begingroup$
              @Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 18 at 15:53










            • $begingroup$
              Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 20 at 11:08


















            1












            $begingroup$

            The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.



            In this basis



            $$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$



            Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.



            $$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
            For any $n$
            $$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
            hence we need to prove that for any $m$



            $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$



            Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
            0 & d_2 & 0 \
            0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$
            and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $



            Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
            z & 0 & -x \
            -y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$
            .



            Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
            d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
            -d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
            d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
            -d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
            (d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
            -(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $



            Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$



            Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much!
              $endgroup$
              – Giraffes4thewin
              Mar 18 at 15:52










            • $begingroup$
              @Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 18 at 15:53










            • $begingroup$
              Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 20 at 11:08
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.



            In this basis



            $$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$



            Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.



            $$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
            For any $n$
            $$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
            hence we need to prove that for any $m$



            $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$



            Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
            0 & d_2 & 0 \
            0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$
            and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $



            Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
            z & 0 & -x \
            -y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$
            .



            Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
            d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
            -d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
            d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
            -d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
            (d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
            -(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $



            Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$



            Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The problem becomes a little easier if we transform orthogonally all matrices and vectors to the basis where symmetric matrix $S$ becomes diagonal matrix $D$, vectors $a,b$ are still any vectors but expressed with reference to this basis, denote them $m,n$.



            In this basis



            $$ D( m times n) +(Dm) times n + m times (Dn) =0 $$



            Vector product can be replaced with a use of skew-symmetric matrix, denote it $K$ .... $K(m)$ means here the skew-symmetric matrix assigned to the vector $m$ according to the rules in Wikipedia.



            $$ D K(m) n +K(Dm) n + K(m) Dn =0 $$
            For any $n$
            $$ (D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D)n =0 $$
            hence we need to prove that for any $m$



            $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$



            Denote $D=begin{bmatrix} d_1 & 0 & 0 \
            0 & d_2 & 0 \
            0 & 0 & d_3\ end{bmatrix}$
            and $m=begin{bmatrix} x & y & z end{bmatrix}^T $



            Then $Dm=begin{bmatrix} d_1x & d_2y & d_3z end{bmatrix}^T $ and $K(m)= begin{bmatrix} 0 & -z & y \
            z & 0 & -x \
            -y & x & 0\ end{bmatrix}$
            .



            Consequently $DK(m)+K(m)D=begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_1z & d_1y \
            d_2z & 0 & -d_2x \
            -d_3y & d_3x & 0\ end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix} 0 & -d_2z & d_3y \
            d_1z & 0 & -d_3x \
            -d_1y & d_2x & 0\ end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} 0 & -(d_2+d_1)z & (d_3+d_1)y \
            (d_1+d_2)z & 0 & -(d_3+d_2)x \
            -(d_1+d_3)y & (d_2+d_3)x & 0\ end{bmatrix} $



            Under change of basis trace is preserved ( $operatorname{trace} (D) = operatorname{trace}(S)) $ hence we have $d_1+d_2+ d_3=0$ what leads to $$DK(m)+K(m)D= -K(Dm)$$



            Therefore for any $m$ we have $$ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D =0 $$ .







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 18 at 15:37









            WidawensenWidawensen

            4,75831446




            4,75831446












            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much!
              $endgroup$
              – Giraffes4thewin
              Mar 18 at 15:52










            • $begingroup$
              @Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 18 at 15:53










            • $begingroup$
              Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 20 at 11:08




















            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much!
              $endgroup$
              – Giraffes4thewin
              Mar 18 at 15:52










            • $begingroup$
              @Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 18 at 15:53










            • $begingroup$
              Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
              $endgroup$
              – Widawensen
              Mar 20 at 11:08


















            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much!
            $endgroup$
            – Giraffes4thewin
            Mar 18 at 15:52




            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much!
            $endgroup$
            – Giraffes4thewin
            Mar 18 at 15:52












            $begingroup$
            @Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
            $endgroup$
            – Widawensen
            Mar 18 at 15:53




            $begingroup$
            @Giraffes4thewin Very interesting problem. Thank you for posting it :)
            $endgroup$
            – Widawensen
            Mar 18 at 15:53












            $begingroup$
            Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
            $endgroup$
            – Widawensen
            Mar 20 at 11:08






            $begingroup$
            Interestingly, we can even write general formula for situation when trace is not equal to $0$ i.e. $ D K(m) +K(Dm) + K(m) D = tr(D)K(m) $ for any 3-d skew symmetric matrix $K(m)$
            $endgroup$
            – Widawensen
            Mar 20 at 11:08




















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