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Domain of attraction $F(x)=exp(-x-sin(x))$


Computation of $mathbb{E}[min(U+W,V+W)]$Inverse quantile function for $sin^2(x)$Central limit theorem kind of statement for recordsConvergence of sequence of random variables 2$Z = sum_{i=1}^T X_i$, $T$ ~ $Geo(p)$, $X_i$ ~ $exp(lambda)$. Then, $Z$ ~ $exp(plambda)$Application of Central Limit Theorem - Uniform DistributionStatistics of Extreme risksExtreme value index of $F(x) = 1-e^ left(-frac{x^2}{4}right)$What does it mean centering a Gumbel distribution?Maximum Likelihood Estimator for a exp(1/$theta$) distributed rv













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I need to show that $F(x)=exp(-x-sin(x)),x >0$ is in no domain of attraction. That means that there exist no $a_{k} >0, b_{k} in mathbb{R}, k in mathbb{N}$ with $limlimits_{k to infty} frac{U(kx)-b(k)}{a(k)}=D(x)$ where $D(x)=G^{leftarrow}(e^{frac{1}{x}}),$ $G$ is a nondegenerate distribution function and $U=(frac{1}{1-F})^{leftarrow}$.
As a hint i know that the following holds $$ limlimits_{k to infty} U(n_{k}x)-log(n_{k})= U_{1}(x)$$
where $U_{1}$ is the inverse of $exp(x+sin(x))$ and $n_{k}=[exp(2pi k)].$
Any approach?










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$endgroup$

















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    $begingroup$


    I need to show that $F(x)=exp(-x-sin(x)),x >0$ is in no domain of attraction. That means that there exist no $a_{k} >0, b_{k} in mathbb{R}, k in mathbb{N}$ with $limlimits_{k to infty} frac{U(kx)-b(k)}{a(k)}=D(x)$ where $D(x)=G^{leftarrow}(e^{frac{1}{x}}),$ $G$ is a nondegenerate distribution function and $U=(frac{1}{1-F})^{leftarrow}$.
    As a hint i know that the following holds $$ limlimits_{k to infty} U(n_{k}x)-log(n_{k})= U_{1}(x)$$
    where $U_{1}$ is the inverse of $exp(x+sin(x))$ and $n_{k}=[exp(2pi k)].$
    Any approach?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I need to show that $F(x)=exp(-x-sin(x)),x >0$ is in no domain of attraction. That means that there exist no $a_{k} >0, b_{k} in mathbb{R}, k in mathbb{N}$ with $limlimits_{k to infty} frac{U(kx)-b(k)}{a(k)}=D(x)$ where $D(x)=G^{leftarrow}(e^{frac{1}{x}}),$ $G$ is a nondegenerate distribution function and $U=(frac{1}{1-F})^{leftarrow}$.
      As a hint i know that the following holds $$ limlimits_{k to infty} U(n_{k}x)-log(n_{k})= U_{1}(x)$$
      where $U_{1}$ is the inverse of $exp(x+sin(x))$ and $n_{k}=[exp(2pi k)].$
      Any approach?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I need to show that $F(x)=exp(-x-sin(x)),x >0$ is in no domain of attraction. That means that there exist no $a_{k} >0, b_{k} in mathbb{R}, k in mathbb{N}$ with $limlimits_{k to infty} frac{U(kx)-b(k)}{a(k)}=D(x)$ where $D(x)=G^{leftarrow}(e^{frac{1}{x}}),$ $G$ is a nondegenerate distribution function and $U=(frac{1}{1-F})^{leftarrow}$.
      As a hint i know that the following holds $$ limlimits_{k to infty} U(n_{k}x)-log(n_{k})= U_{1}(x)$$
      where $U_{1}$ is the inverse of $exp(x+sin(x))$ and $n_{k}=[exp(2pi k)].$
      Any approach?







      probability-distributions stochastic-analysis extreme-value-theorem






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Mar 13 at 7:34









      John DoeJohn Doe

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