I have an abelian group $G$ and two cyclic subgroups of orders $p,q$, $( p,q)=1$ and I need to show I have a...
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I have an abelian group $G$ and two cyclic subgroups of orders $p,q$, $( p,q)=1$ and I need to show I have a subgroup of order $pq$.
Non-abelian $p$-group; abelian subgroups of index $p$Do finite $p$-groups have subgroups of all possible orders containing a given non-normal subgroup?Group of order $135$ abelian and not cyclicLet $G$ be an abelian group;$H$, $K$ are finite cyclic subgroups. Show that $G$ contains a cyclic subgroup of order $lcm(r, s)$.Show by Lagrange's theorem that a group $G$ of order $27$ should have a subgroup of order $3$.All groups of order 10 have a proper normal subgroupprove that non cyclic group has two cyclic subgroups of different ordersFinding cyclic subgroup generators given orders$p$-group as product of two normal cyclic subgroupsIf every proper subgroup of a finite abelian group $G$ is cyclic, then $G$ is cyclic.
$begingroup$
I have an abelian group $G$ and two cyclic subgroups of orders $p,q$, $( p,q)=1$ and I need to show I have a subgroup of order $pq$. Is it enough to say that, from Cauchy's theorem, there is an $ain G$ of order $pq$ and then build a cyclic subgroup with elements from the previously shown subgroups? What are the elements I should take?
group-theory finite-groups
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have an abelian group $G$ and two cyclic subgroups of orders $p,q$, $( p,q)=1$ and I need to show I have a subgroup of order $pq$. Is it enough to say that, from Cauchy's theorem, there is an $ain G$ of order $pq$ and then build a cyclic subgroup with elements from the previously shown subgroups? What are the elements I should take?
group-theory finite-groups
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
No, that is not enough, because that is not what Cauchy's theorem says.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 7:53
$begingroup$
Do you know how to form the product of two subgroups?
$endgroup$
– the_fox
Mar 15 at 7:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have an abelian group $G$ and two cyclic subgroups of orders $p,q$, $( p,q)=1$ and I need to show I have a subgroup of order $pq$. Is it enough to say that, from Cauchy's theorem, there is an $ain G$ of order $pq$ and then build a cyclic subgroup with elements from the previously shown subgroups? What are the elements I should take?
group-theory finite-groups
$endgroup$
I have an abelian group $G$ and two cyclic subgroups of orders $p,q$, $( p,q)=1$ and I need to show I have a subgroup of order $pq$. Is it enough to say that, from Cauchy's theorem, there is an $ain G$ of order $pq$ and then build a cyclic subgroup with elements from the previously shown subgroups? What are the elements I should take?
group-theory finite-groups
group-theory finite-groups
asked Mar 15 at 7:48
user651754
$begingroup$
No, that is not enough, because that is not what Cauchy's theorem says.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 7:53
$begingroup$
Do you know how to form the product of two subgroups?
$endgroup$
– the_fox
Mar 15 at 7:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, that is not enough, because that is not what Cauchy's theorem says.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 7:53
$begingroup$
Do you know how to form the product of two subgroups?
$endgroup$
– the_fox
Mar 15 at 7:54
$begingroup$
No, that is not enough, because that is not what Cauchy's theorem says.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 7:53
$begingroup$
No, that is not enough, because that is not what Cauchy's theorem says.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 7:53
$begingroup$
Do you know how to form the product of two subgroups?
$endgroup$
– the_fox
Mar 15 at 7:54
$begingroup$
Do you know how to form the product of two subgroups?
$endgroup$
– the_fox
Mar 15 at 7:54
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Hint: If $x$ has order $p$ and $y$ has order $q$, what is the order of $xy$?
In fact, we do not even need that the given subgroups are cyclic. In most textbooks (e.g. Dummit and Foote), you will find the more general proposition that if $HK = KH$ for subgroups $H,K<G$, then
$$
|HK|=frac{|H||K|}{|Hcap K|}.
$$
The conditions on $H$ and $K$ are trivially satisfied since $G$ is abelian. Also, $Hcap K$ is a subgroup of both $H$ and $K$, so its order must divide $|H|$ and $|K|$. But, when $|H|$ and $|K|$ are relatively prime, this implies $|Hcap K |=1$.
(As pointed out by @Tobias in his comment, the identity holds without the condition that $HK = KH$; the condition ensures that $HK$ is a subgroup of $G$.)
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Actually, the condition that $HK = KH$ is only needed for the product to be a subgroup. The size of the product will always be given by that formula.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 10:26
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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votes
$begingroup$
Hint: If $x$ has order $p$ and $y$ has order $q$, what is the order of $xy$?
In fact, we do not even need that the given subgroups are cyclic. In most textbooks (e.g. Dummit and Foote), you will find the more general proposition that if $HK = KH$ for subgroups $H,K<G$, then
$$
|HK|=frac{|H||K|}{|Hcap K|}.
$$
The conditions on $H$ and $K$ are trivially satisfied since $G$ is abelian. Also, $Hcap K$ is a subgroup of both $H$ and $K$, so its order must divide $|H|$ and $|K|$. But, when $|H|$ and $|K|$ are relatively prime, this implies $|Hcap K |=1$.
(As pointed out by @Tobias in his comment, the identity holds without the condition that $HK = KH$; the condition ensures that $HK$ is a subgroup of $G$.)
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Actually, the condition that $HK = KH$ is only needed for the product to be a subgroup. The size of the product will always be given by that formula.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 10:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: If $x$ has order $p$ and $y$ has order $q$, what is the order of $xy$?
In fact, we do not even need that the given subgroups are cyclic. In most textbooks (e.g. Dummit and Foote), you will find the more general proposition that if $HK = KH$ for subgroups $H,K<G$, then
$$
|HK|=frac{|H||K|}{|Hcap K|}.
$$
The conditions on $H$ and $K$ are trivially satisfied since $G$ is abelian. Also, $Hcap K$ is a subgroup of both $H$ and $K$, so its order must divide $|H|$ and $|K|$. But, when $|H|$ and $|K|$ are relatively prime, this implies $|Hcap K |=1$.
(As pointed out by @Tobias in his comment, the identity holds without the condition that $HK = KH$; the condition ensures that $HK$ is a subgroup of $G$.)
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Actually, the condition that $HK = KH$ is only needed for the product to be a subgroup. The size of the product will always be given by that formula.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 10:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: If $x$ has order $p$ and $y$ has order $q$, what is the order of $xy$?
In fact, we do not even need that the given subgroups are cyclic. In most textbooks (e.g. Dummit and Foote), you will find the more general proposition that if $HK = KH$ for subgroups $H,K<G$, then
$$
|HK|=frac{|H||K|}{|Hcap K|}.
$$
The conditions on $H$ and $K$ are trivially satisfied since $G$ is abelian. Also, $Hcap K$ is a subgroup of both $H$ and $K$, so its order must divide $|H|$ and $|K|$. But, when $|H|$ and $|K|$ are relatively prime, this implies $|Hcap K |=1$.
(As pointed out by @Tobias in his comment, the identity holds without the condition that $HK = KH$; the condition ensures that $HK$ is a subgroup of $G$.)
$endgroup$
Hint: If $x$ has order $p$ and $y$ has order $q$, what is the order of $xy$?
In fact, we do not even need that the given subgroups are cyclic. In most textbooks (e.g. Dummit and Foote), you will find the more general proposition that if $HK = KH$ for subgroups $H,K<G$, then
$$
|HK|=frac{|H||K|}{|Hcap K|}.
$$
The conditions on $H$ and $K$ are trivially satisfied since $G$ is abelian. Also, $Hcap K$ is a subgroup of both $H$ and $K$, so its order must divide $|H|$ and $|K|$. But, when $|H|$ and $|K|$ are relatively prime, this implies $|Hcap K |=1$.
(As pointed out by @Tobias in his comment, the identity holds without the condition that $HK = KH$; the condition ensures that $HK$ is a subgroup of $G$.)
edited Mar 15 at 12:15
answered Mar 15 at 8:21
o.h.o.h.
6917
6917
2
$begingroup$
Actually, the condition that $HK = KH$ is only needed for the product to be a subgroup. The size of the product will always be given by that formula.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 10:26
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Actually, the condition that $HK = KH$ is only needed for the product to be a subgroup. The size of the product will always be given by that formula.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 10:26
2
2
$begingroup$
Actually, the condition that $HK = KH$ is only needed for the product to be a subgroup. The size of the product will always be given by that formula.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 10:26
$begingroup$
Actually, the condition that $HK = KH$ is only needed for the product to be a subgroup. The size of the product will always be given by that formula.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 10:26
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
No, that is not enough, because that is not what Cauchy's theorem says.
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Mar 15 at 7:53
$begingroup$
Do you know how to form the product of two subgroups?
$endgroup$
– the_fox
Mar 15 at 7:54