Showing that $mathbb{C}$ minus a point is homotopy equivalent to $S^1$$X$ and $Y$ are homotopy equivalent...
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Showing that $mathbb{C}$ minus a point is homotopy equivalent to $S^1$
$X$ and $Y$ are homotopy equivalent $Leftrightarrow$ $exists Z:$ $X,Y$ are strong deformation retracts of $Z$Homotopy equivalence in the category of arrows.Showing that a homotopy fiber of a fibration is homotopy equivalent to the fiber of the base point.Exercise 2, chapter 4, Hatcher.Showing that $mathbb S^1$ is a deformation retract of the Mobius strip, rigorously.$X$ is contractible if and only if $X simeq { * } $ - A three-part questionWhich surface is homotopy equivalent to $Bbb{R}^4$ minus the planes $x=y=0$, $z=w=0$?Prove the cylinder $S^1 times I$ is homotopy equivalent to the circle $S^1$Is $(I^n, partial I^n)$ homotopy equivalent to $(R^n, R^nsetminus left{0right})$Does a deck transformation have a homotopy that lifts to it?
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Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:
Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.
Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.
This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?
general-topology homotopy-theory
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:
Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.
Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.
This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?
general-topology homotopy-theory
$endgroup$
1
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Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:
Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.
Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.
This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?
general-topology homotopy-theory
$endgroup$
Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:
Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.
Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.
This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?
general-topology homotopy-theory
general-topology homotopy-theory
edited Mar 9 at 17:01
Primebrook
asked Mar 9 at 16:52
PrimebrookPrimebrook
605
605
1
$begingroup$
Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57
1
1
$begingroup$
Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57
$begingroup$
Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?
$endgroup$
Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?
answered Mar 9 at 17:02
Lee MosherLee Mosher
50.5k33787
50.5k33787
$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08
$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08
$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57