Showing that $mathbb{C}$ minus a point is homotopy equivalent to $S^1$$X$ and $Y$ are homotopy equivalent...

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Showing that $mathbb{C}$ minus a point is homotopy equivalent to $S^1$


$X$ and $Y$ are homotopy equivalent $Leftrightarrow$ $exists Z:$ $X,Y$ are strong deformation retracts of $Z$Homotopy equivalence in the category of arrows.Showing that a homotopy fiber of a fibration is homotopy equivalent to the fiber of the base point.Exercise 2, chapter 4, Hatcher.Showing that $mathbb S^1$ is a deformation retract of the Mobius strip, rigorously.$X$ is contractible if and only if $X simeq { * } $ - A three-part questionWhich surface is homotopy equivalent to $Bbb{R}^4$ minus the planes $x=y=0$, $z=w=0$?Prove the cylinder $S^1 times I$ is homotopy equivalent to the circle $S^1$Is $(I^n, partial I^n)$ homotopy equivalent to $(R^n, R^nsetminus left{0right})$Does a deck transformation have a homotopy that lifts to it?













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$begingroup$


Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:



Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.



Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.



This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Mar 9 at 16:57
















1












$begingroup$


Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:



Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.



Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.



This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Mar 9 at 16:57














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:



Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.



Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.



This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Intuitively this is clear (I think)? However I struggled to construct the homotopy. Here's what I attempted:



Define $M:=mathbb{C} - p$ where $p$ is a point in $mathbb{C}$.



Define also, $alpha:S^1rightarrow M$, given by $x mapsto x$.
And Define $beta:Mrightarrow S^1$, given by $ymapsto frac{y}{mid y mid}$.



This gives us $betaalpha(x) = Id_{S^1}$. So all that is left to show is that and $alphabeta(x) = frac{x}{mid x mid} simeq Id_{M}$. Here's where I struggled to come up with a homotopy and perhaps that is because I picked $alpha$ and $beta$ wrong to start with?







general-topology homotopy-theory






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edited Mar 9 at 17:01







Primebrook

















asked Mar 9 at 16:52









PrimebrookPrimebrook

605




605








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Mar 9 at 16:57














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Mar 9 at 16:57








1




1




$begingroup$
Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57




$begingroup$
Note that $|z|in(0,infty)$ for $zin Bbb C^times$. Can you show that $(0,infty)$ is homotopy equivalent to ${1}$?
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Mar 9 at 16:57










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?






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$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Primebrook
    Mar 9 at 17:08











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Primebrook
    Mar 9 at 17:08
















4












$begingroup$

Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Primebrook
    Mar 9 at 17:08














4












4








4





$begingroup$

Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Hint: Given two points $p,q in mathbb C$, how do you parameterize the line segment $overline{pq}$ using the parameter interval $0 le t le 1$?







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 9 at 17:02









Lee MosherLee Mosher

50.5k33787




50.5k33787












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Primebrook
    Mar 9 at 17:08


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Primebrook
    Mar 9 at 17:08
















$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08




$begingroup$
Thank you, perfect answer. It's made it obvious now. :)
$endgroup$
– Primebrook
Mar 9 at 17:08


















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