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What is a vertex-transitive graph? (Question about Lovász Conjecture)


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$begingroup$


I was reading about Lovász Conjecture and came across the following definition on Wikipedia of a vertex-transitive graph (see below).



$bullet$ It states that a graph is vertex-transitive if for any two vertices $u$ and $v$ of the graph, there is some automorphism (i.e. a relabeling of vertices of a graph) $f: V(G)rightarrow V(G)$ where $f(u)=v$.




$textbf{QUESTION:}$ I'm having a hard time figuring out how to use this definition in this context; so, my question is why are certain graphs vertex transitive and others not? For example, what is the function for the graph below that makes it vertex transitive?




enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It's not a single function which makes the graph vertex transitive. In the graph you drew, for example, you have an automorphism which swaps $v_1,v_4$ and fixes the other two graphs, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Mar 9 at 16:57
















1












$begingroup$


I was reading about Lovász Conjecture and came across the following definition on Wikipedia of a vertex-transitive graph (see below).



$bullet$ It states that a graph is vertex-transitive if for any two vertices $u$ and $v$ of the graph, there is some automorphism (i.e. a relabeling of vertices of a graph) $f: V(G)rightarrow V(G)$ where $f(u)=v$.




$textbf{QUESTION:}$ I'm having a hard time figuring out how to use this definition in this context; so, my question is why are certain graphs vertex transitive and others not? For example, what is the function for the graph below that makes it vertex transitive?




enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It's not a single function which makes the graph vertex transitive. In the graph you drew, for example, you have an automorphism which swaps $v_1,v_4$ and fixes the other two graphs, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Mar 9 at 16:57














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I was reading about Lovász Conjecture and came across the following definition on Wikipedia of a vertex-transitive graph (see below).



$bullet$ It states that a graph is vertex-transitive if for any two vertices $u$ and $v$ of the graph, there is some automorphism (i.e. a relabeling of vertices of a graph) $f: V(G)rightarrow V(G)$ where $f(u)=v$.




$textbf{QUESTION:}$ I'm having a hard time figuring out how to use this definition in this context; so, my question is why are certain graphs vertex transitive and others not? For example, what is the function for the graph below that makes it vertex transitive?




enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I was reading about Lovász Conjecture and came across the following definition on Wikipedia of a vertex-transitive graph (see below).



$bullet$ It states that a graph is vertex-transitive if for any two vertices $u$ and $v$ of the graph, there is some automorphism (i.e. a relabeling of vertices of a graph) $f: V(G)rightarrow V(G)$ where $f(u)=v$.




$textbf{QUESTION:}$ I'm having a hard time figuring out how to use this definition in this context; so, my question is why are certain graphs vertex transitive and others not? For example, what is the function for the graph below that makes it vertex transitive?




enter image description here







graph-theory hamiltonian-path






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 9 at 16:50









W. G.W. G.

6991718




6991718








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It's not a single function which makes the graph vertex transitive. In the graph you drew, for example, you have an automorphism which swaps $v_1,v_4$ and fixes the other two graphs, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Mar 9 at 16:57














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It's not a single function which makes the graph vertex transitive. In the graph you drew, for example, you have an automorphism which swaps $v_1,v_4$ and fixes the other two graphs, and so on.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Mar 9 at 16:57








2




2




$begingroup$
It's not a single function which makes the graph vertex transitive. In the graph you drew, for example, you have an automorphism which swaps $v_1,v_4$ and fixes the other two graphs, and so on.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Mar 9 at 16:57




$begingroup$
It's not a single function which makes the graph vertex transitive. In the graph you drew, for example, you have an automorphism which swaps $v_1,v_4$ and fixes the other two graphs, and so on.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Mar 9 at 16:57










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Suppose you wanted to swap $v_1$ and $v_2$. Then, you could leave $v_3$ and $v_4$, and all of the connections in the graph would be the same (e.g. the new $v_1$ and the old $v_1$ are both still connected to the vertices labelled $v_2,v_3,v_4$). This graph is $K_4$ which is particularly nice in that any rearrangement preserves that property.



To see an example that wouldn't work, take a graph with two vertices of different degree. Then, no matter how you try to swap them you won't be able to get a graph with the same connectivity relationships.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That helps out a lot! Thank you! So, in the case of swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$; the function $f$ would be $f={ (v_1, v_2), (v_2, v_1), (v_3, v_3), (v_4, v_4)}$ which preserves the same edge vertex connectivity as before. So, my question is in the case of other graphs, do we have to necessarily keep $v_3$ mapping to $v_3$ and $v_4$ to $v_4$ after swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$ to see if we have the same vertex connectivity as before or could we swap some other vertices around too to see if we have the same edge vertex connectivity as before?
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    I think its the latter (where other vertices could be switched around), but I'm not quite sure..
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, not necessarily, it would depend on the graph. Any permutation of the vertices of $K_4$ gives a valid automorphism (which is a special property of complete graphs). So you could do $v_1 rightarrow v_2$, $v_2 rightarrow v_1$, $v_3 rightarrow v_4$ and $v_4 rightarrow v_3$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Biro
    Mar 9 at 17:48








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you!!! I got it now! I appreciate your time.
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:48











Your Answer





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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Suppose you wanted to swap $v_1$ and $v_2$. Then, you could leave $v_3$ and $v_4$, and all of the connections in the graph would be the same (e.g. the new $v_1$ and the old $v_1$ are both still connected to the vertices labelled $v_2,v_3,v_4$). This graph is $K_4$ which is particularly nice in that any rearrangement preserves that property.



To see an example that wouldn't work, take a graph with two vertices of different degree. Then, no matter how you try to swap them you won't be able to get a graph with the same connectivity relationships.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That helps out a lot! Thank you! So, in the case of swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$; the function $f$ would be $f={ (v_1, v_2), (v_2, v_1), (v_3, v_3), (v_4, v_4)}$ which preserves the same edge vertex connectivity as before. So, my question is in the case of other graphs, do we have to necessarily keep $v_3$ mapping to $v_3$ and $v_4$ to $v_4$ after swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$ to see if we have the same vertex connectivity as before or could we swap some other vertices around too to see if we have the same edge vertex connectivity as before?
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    I think its the latter (where other vertices could be switched around), but I'm not quite sure..
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, not necessarily, it would depend on the graph. Any permutation of the vertices of $K_4$ gives a valid automorphism (which is a special property of complete graphs). So you could do $v_1 rightarrow v_2$, $v_2 rightarrow v_1$, $v_3 rightarrow v_4$ and $v_4 rightarrow v_3$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Biro
    Mar 9 at 17:48








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you!!! I got it now! I appreciate your time.
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:48
















1












$begingroup$

Suppose you wanted to swap $v_1$ and $v_2$. Then, you could leave $v_3$ and $v_4$, and all of the connections in the graph would be the same (e.g. the new $v_1$ and the old $v_1$ are both still connected to the vertices labelled $v_2,v_3,v_4$). This graph is $K_4$ which is particularly nice in that any rearrangement preserves that property.



To see an example that wouldn't work, take a graph with two vertices of different degree. Then, no matter how you try to swap them you won't be able to get a graph with the same connectivity relationships.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That helps out a lot! Thank you! So, in the case of swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$; the function $f$ would be $f={ (v_1, v_2), (v_2, v_1), (v_3, v_3), (v_4, v_4)}$ which preserves the same edge vertex connectivity as before. So, my question is in the case of other graphs, do we have to necessarily keep $v_3$ mapping to $v_3$ and $v_4$ to $v_4$ after swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$ to see if we have the same vertex connectivity as before or could we swap some other vertices around too to see if we have the same edge vertex connectivity as before?
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    I think its the latter (where other vertices could be switched around), but I'm not quite sure..
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, not necessarily, it would depend on the graph. Any permutation of the vertices of $K_4$ gives a valid automorphism (which is a special property of complete graphs). So you could do $v_1 rightarrow v_2$, $v_2 rightarrow v_1$, $v_3 rightarrow v_4$ and $v_4 rightarrow v_3$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Biro
    Mar 9 at 17:48








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you!!! I got it now! I appreciate your time.
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:48














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Suppose you wanted to swap $v_1$ and $v_2$. Then, you could leave $v_3$ and $v_4$, and all of the connections in the graph would be the same (e.g. the new $v_1$ and the old $v_1$ are both still connected to the vertices labelled $v_2,v_3,v_4$). This graph is $K_4$ which is particularly nice in that any rearrangement preserves that property.



To see an example that wouldn't work, take a graph with two vertices of different degree. Then, no matter how you try to swap them you won't be able to get a graph with the same connectivity relationships.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Suppose you wanted to swap $v_1$ and $v_2$. Then, you could leave $v_3$ and $v_4$, and all of the connections in the graph would be the same (e.g. the new $v_1$ and the old $v_1$ are both still connected to the vertices labelled $v_2,v_3,v_4$). This graph is $K_4$ which is particularly nice in that any rearrangement preserves that property.



To see an example that wouldn't work, take a graph with two vertices of different degree. Then, no matter how you try to swap them you won't be able to get a graph with the same connectivity relationships.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 9 at 16:57









Michael BiroMichael Biro

10.9k21831




10.9k21831












  • $begingroup$
    That helps out a lot! Thank you! So, in the case of swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$; the function $f$ would be $f={ (v_1, v_2), (v_2, v_1), (v_3, v_3), (v_4, v_4)}$ which preserves the same edge vertex connectivity as before. So, my question is in the case of other graphs, do we have to necessarily keep $v_3$ mapping to $v_3$ and $v_4$ to $v_4$ after swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$ to see if we have the same vertex connectivity as before or could we swap some other vertices around too to see if we have the same edge vertex connectivity as before?
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    I think its the latter (where other vertices could be switched around), but I'm not quite sure..
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, not necessarily, it would depend on the graph. Any permutation of the vertices of $K_4$ gives a valid automorphism (which is a special property of complete graphs). So you could do $v_1 rightarrow v_2$, $v_2 rightarrow v_1$, $v_3 rightarrow v_4$ and $v_4 rightarrow v_3$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Biro
    Mar 9 at 17:48








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you!!! I got it now! I appreciate your time.
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:48


















  • $begingroup$
    That helps out a lot! Thank you! So, in the case of swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$; the function $f$ would be $f={ (v_1, v_2), (v_2, v_1), (v_3, v_3), (v_4, v_4)}$ which preserves the same edge vertex connectivity as before. So, my question is in the case of other graphs, do we have to necessarily keep $v_3$ mapping to $v_3$ and $v_4$ to $v_4$ after swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$ to see if we have the same vertex connectivity as before or could we swap some other vertices around too to see if we have the same edge vertex connectivity as before?
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    I think its the latter (where other vertices could be switched around), but I'm not quite sure..
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, not necessarily, it would depend on the graph. Any permutation of the vertices of $K_4$ gives a valid automorphism (which is a special property of complete graphs). So you could do $v_1 rightarrow v_2$, $v_2 rightarrow v_1$, $v_3 rightarrow v_4$ and $v_4 rightarrow v_3$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Biro
    Mar 9 at 17:48








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you!!! I got it now! I appreciate your time.
    $endgroup$
    – W. G.
    Mar 9 at 17:48
















$begingroup$
That helps out a lot! Thank you! So, in the case of swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$; the function $f$ would be $f={ (v_1, v_2), (v_2, v_1), (v_3, v_3), (v_4, v_4)}$ which preserves the same edge vertex connectivity as before. So, my question is in the case of other graphs, do we have to necessarily keep $v_3$ mapping to $v_3$ and $v_4$ to $v_4$ after swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$ to see if we have the same vertex connectivity as before or could we swap some other vertices around too to see if we have the same edge vertex connectivity as before?
$endgroup$
– W. G.
Mar 9 at 17:40






$begingroup$
That helps out a lot! Thank you! So, in the case of swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$; the function $f$ would be $f={ (v_1, v_2), (v_2, v_1), (v_3, v_3), (v_4, v_4)}$ which preserves the same edge vertex connectivity as before. So, my question is in the case of other graphs, do we have to necessarily keep $v_3$ mapping to $v_3$ and $v_4$ to $v_4$ after swapping $v_1$ and $v_2$ to see if we have the same vertex connectivity as before or could we swap some other vertices around too to see if we have the same edge vertex connectivity as before?
$endgroup$
– W. G.
Mar 9 at 17:40














$begingroup$
I think its the latter (where other vertices could be switched around), but I'm not quite sure..
$endgroup$
– W. G.
Mar 9 at 17:45




$begingroup$
I think its the latter (where other vertices could be switched around), but I'm not quite sure..
$endgroup$
– W. G.
Mar 9 at 17:45




1




1




$begingroup$
No, not necessarily, it would depend on the graph. Any permutation of the vertices of $K_4$ gives a valid automorphism (which is a special property of complete graphs). So you could do $v_1 rightarrow v_2$, $v_2 rightarrow v_1$, $v_3 rightarrow v_4$ and $v_4 rightarrow v_3$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Mar 9 at 17:48






$begingroup$
No, not necessarily, it would depend on the graph. Any permutation of the vertices of $K_4$ gives a valid automorphism (which is a special property of complete graphs). So you could do $v_1 rightarrow v_2$, $v_2 rightarrow v_1$, $v_3 rightarrow v_4$ and $v_4 rightarrow v_3$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Mar 9 at 17:48






1




1




$begingroup$
Thank you!!! I got it now! I appreciate your time.
$endgroup$
– W. G.
Mar 9 at 17:48




$begingroup$
Thank you!!! I got it now! I appreciate your time.
$endgroup$
– W. G.
Mar 9 at 17:48


















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