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Why is this estimator biased?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How do I check for bias of an estimator?Bootstrap confidence interval for a biased estimatorConceptual question about bias of an estimatorEstimator, unbiased or biasedCalculating risk for a density estimatorLinear model with biased estimatorBias Correction for Estimator with known biasWhy is OLS estimator of AR(1) coefficient biased?Cramer-Rao lower bound for biased estimatorVariance of distribution for maximum likelihood estimator





.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
}







2












$begingroup$


$X_{1},X_{2},..,X_{n}$ are iid $sim Poisson(mu)$



than the MLE for $theta=e^{-mu}$ is $hat theta =e^{-bar x}$



Why is this considered to be biased for $theta$?



Is $E[hat theta]$ not $theta$ ?



as



$E[bar x]= mu$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    E[f(X)] != f(E[X]) in general.
    $endgroup$
    – The Laconic
    Mar 22 at 20:54












  • $begingroup$
    I know that general result but I am still confused how to do it here since the sum of poisson is also poisson with mean $n mu$
    $endgroup$
    – Quality
    Mar 22 at 21:01


















2












$begingroup$


$X_{1},X_{2},..,X_{n}$ are iid $sim Poisson(mu)$



than the MLE for $theta=e^{-mu}$ is $hat theta =e^{-bar x}$



Why is this considered to be biased for $theta$?



Is $E[hat theta]$ not $theta$ ?



as



$E[bar x]= mu$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    E[f(X)] != f(E[X]) in general.
    $endgroup$
    – The Laconic
    Mar 22 at 20:54












  • $begingroup$
    I know that general result but I am still confused how to do it here since the sum of poisson is also poisson with mean $n mu$
    $endgroup$
    – Quality
    Mar 22 at 21:01














2












2








2


2



$begingroup$


$X_{1},X_{2},..,X_{n}$ are iid $sim Poisson(mu)$



than the MLE for $theta=e^{-mu}$ is $hat theta =e^{-bar x}$



Why is this considered to be biased for $theta$?



Is $E[hat theta]$ not $theta$ ?



as



$E[bar x]= mu$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




$X_{1},X_{2},..,X_{n}$ are iid $sim Poisson(mu)$



than the MLE for $theta=e^{-mu}$ is $hat theta =e^{-bar x}$



Why is this considered to be biased for $theta$?



Is $E[hat theta]$ not $theta$ ?



as



$E[bar x]= mu$







estimation poisson-distribution bias






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 22 at 20:47









QualityQuality

309110




309110








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    E[f(X)] != f(E[X]) in general.
    $endgroup$
    – The Laconic
    Mar 22 at 20:54












  • $begingroup$
    I know that general result but I am still confused how to do it here since the sum of poisson is also poisson with mean $n mu$
    $endgroup$
    – Quality
    Mar 22 at 21:01














  • 6




    $begingroup$
    E[f(X)] != f(E[X]) in general.
    $endgroup$
    – The Laconic
    Mar 22 at 20:54












  • $begingroup$
    I know that general result but I am still confused how to do it here since the sum of poisson is also poisson with mean $n mu$
    $endgroup$
    – Quality
    Mar 22 at 21:01








6




6




$begingroup$
E[f(X)] != f(E[X]) in general.
$endgroup$
– The Laconic
Mar 22 at 20:54






$begingroup$
E[f(X)] != f(E[X]) in general.
$endgroup$
– The Laconic
Mar 22 at 20:54














$begingroup$
I know that general result but I am still confused how to do it here since the sum of poisson is also poisson with mean $n mu$
$endgroup$
– Quality
Mar 22 at 21:01




$begingroup$
I know that general result but I am still confused how to do it here since the sum of poisson is also poisson with mean $n mu$
$endgroup$
– Quality
Mar 22 at 21:01










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Recall that the moment generating function of $X sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ is
$$
E[e^{s X}] = exp(mu(e^s - 1))
$$

for all $s in mathbb{R}$



Proof.
We just compute:
$$
begin{aligned}
E[e^{s X}]
&= sum_{k=0}^infty e^{s k} e^{-mu} frac{mu^k}{k!} \
&= e^{-mu} sum_{k=0}^infty frac{left(mu e^sright)^k}{k!} \
&= e^{-mu} e^{mu e^s} \
&= exp(mu(e^s - 1)).
end{aligned}
$$

We will use this result with $s = -1/n$.



If $X_1, ldots, X_n sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ are i.i.d. and
$$
widehat{theta}
= expleft(-frac{1}{n} sum_{i=1}^n X_iright)
= prod_{i=1}^n expleft(-frac{X_i}{n}right),
$$

then, using independence,
$$
begin{aligned}
E[widehat{theta}]
&= prod_{i=1}^n Eleft[e^{-X_i / n}right] \
&= prod_{i=1}^n exp(mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
&= exp(n mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
&neq e^{-mu},
end{aligned}
$$

so $widehat{theta}$ is not an unbiased estimator of $e^{-mu}$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    7












    $begingroup$

    As an aside from finding the exact expectation, you can use Jensen's inequality, which says that for a random variable $X$ and a convex function $g$,



    $$Eleft[g(X)right]ge gleft(Eleft[Xright]right)$$



    , provided the expectations exist.



    Verify that $g(x)=e^{-x}$ is a convex function from the fact that $g''>0$.



    The equality does not hold because $g$ is not an affine function or a constant function.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$














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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      5












      $begingroup$

      Recall that the moment generating function of $X sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ is
      $$
      E[e^{s X}] = exp(mu(e^s - 1))
      $$

      for all $s in mathbb{R}$



      Proof.
      We just compute:
      $$
      begin{aligned}
      E[e^{s X}]
      &= sum_{k=0}^infty e^{s k} e^{-mu} frac{mu^k}{k!} \
      &= e^{-mu} sum_{k=0}^infty frac{left(mu e^sright)^k}{k!} \
      &= e^{-mu} e^{mu e^s} \
      &= exp(mu(e^s - 1)).
      end{aligned}
      $$

      We will use this result with $s = -1/n$.



      If $X_1, ldots, X_n sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ are i.i.d. and
      $$
      widehat{theta}
      = expleft(-frac{1}{n} sum_{i=1}^n X_iright)
      = prod_{i=1}^n expleft(-frac{X_i}{n}right),
      $$

      then, using independence,
      $$
      begin{aligned}
      E[widehat{theta}]
      &= prod_{i=1}^n Eleft[e^{-X_i / n}right] \
      &= prod_{i=1}^n exp(mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
      &= exp(n mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
      &neq e^{-mu},
      end{aligned}
      $$

      so $widehat{theta}$ is not an unbiased estimator of $e^{-mu}$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        5












        $begingroup$

        Recall that the moment generating function of $X sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ is
        $$
        E[e^{s X}] = exp(mu(e^s - 1))
        $$

        for all $s in mathbb{R}$



        Proof.
        We just compute:
        $$
        begin{aligned}
        E[e^{s X}]
        &= sum_{k=0}^infty e^{s k} e^{-mu} frac{mu^k}{k!} \
        &= e^{-mu} sum_{k=0}^infty frac{left(mu e^sright)^k}{k!} \
        &= e^{-mu} e^{mu e^s} \
        &= exp(mu(e^s - 1)).
        end{aligned}
        $$

        We will use this result with $s = -1/n$.



        If $X_1, ldots, X_n sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ are i.i.d. and
        $$
        widehat{theta}
        = expleft(-frac{1}{n} sum_{i=1}^n X_iright)
        = prod_{i=1}^n expleft(-frac{X_i}{n}right),
        $$

        then, using independence,
        $$
        begin{aligned}
        E[widehat{theta}]
        &= prod_{i=1}^n Eleft[e^{-X_i / n}right] \
        &= prod_{i=1}^n exp(mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
        &= exp(n mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
        &neq e^{-mu},
        end{aligned}
        $$

        so $widehat{theta}$ is not an unbiased estimator of $e^{-mu}$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          5












          5








          5





          $begingroup$

          Recall that the moment generating function of $X sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ is
          $$
          E[e^{s X}] = exp(mu(e^s - 1))
          $$

          for all $s in mathbb{R}$



          Proof.
          We just compute:
          $$
          begin{aligned}
          E[e^{s X}]
          &= sum_{k=0}^infty e^{s k} e^{-mu} frac{mu^k}{k!} \
          &= e^{-mu} sum_{k=0}^infty frac{left(mu e^sright)^k}{k!} \
          &= e^{-mu} e^{mu e^s} \
          &= exp(mu(e^s - 1)).
          end{aligned}
          $$

          We will use this result with $s = -1/n$.



          If $X_1, ldots, X_n sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ are i.i.d. and
          $$
          widehat{theta}
          = expleft(-frac{1}{n} sum_{i=1}^n X_iright)
          = prod_{i=1}^n expleft(-frac{X_i}{n}right),
          $$

          then, using independence,
          $$
          begin{aligned}
          E[widehat{theta}]
          &= prod_{i=1}^n Eleft[e^{-X_i / n}right] \
          &= prod_{i=1}^n exp(mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
          &= exp(n mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
          &neq e^{-mu},
          end{aligned}
          $$

          so $widehat{theta}$ is not an unbiased estimator of $e^{-mu}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Recall that the moment generating function of $X sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ is
          $$
          E[e^{s X}] = exp(mu(e^s - 1))
          $$

          for all $s in mathbb{R}$



          Proof.
          We just compute:
          $$
          begin{aligned}
          E[e^{s X}]
          &= sum_{k=0}^infty e^{s k} e^{-mu} frac{mu^k}{k!} \
          &= e^{-mu} sum_{k=0}^infty frac{left(mu e^sright)^k}{k!} \
          &= e^{-mu} e^{mu e^s} \
          &= exp(mu(e^s - 1)).
          end{aligned}
          $$

          We will use this result with $s = -1/n$.



          If $X_1, ldots, X_n sim operatorname{Poisson}(mu)$ are i.i.d. and
          $$
          widehat{theta}
          = expleft(-frac{1}{n} sum_{i=1}^n X_iright)
          = prod_{i=1}^n expleft(-frac{X_i}{n}right),
          $$

          then, using independence,
          $$
          begin{aligned}
          E[widehat{theta}]
          &= prod_{i=1}^n Eleft[e^{-X_i / n}right] \
          &= prod_{i=1}^n exp(mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
          &= exp(n mu(e^{-1/n} - 1)) \
          &neq e^{-mu},
          end{aligned}
          $$

          so $widehat{theta}$ is not an unbiased estimator of $e^{-mu}$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Mar 22 at 21:12









          Artem MavrinArtem Mavrin

          1,256712




          1,256712

























              7












              $begingroup$

              As an aside from finding the exact expectation, you can use Jensen's inequality, which says that for a random variable $X$ and a convex function $g$,



              $$Eleft[g(X)right]ge gleft(Eleft[Xright]right)$$



              , provided the expectations exist.



              Verify that $g(x)=e^{-x}$ is a convex function from the fact that $g''>0$.



              The equality does not hold because $g$ is not an affine function or a constant function.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                7












                $begingroup$

                As an aside from finding the exact expectation, you can use Jensen's inequality, which says that for a random variable $X$ and a convex function $g$,



                $$Eleft[g(X)right]ge gleft(Eleft[Xright]right)$$



                , provided the expectations exist.



                Verify that $g(x)=e^{-x}$ is a convex function from the fact that $g''>0$.



                The equality does not hold because $g$ is not an affine function or a constant function.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  7












                  7








                  7





                  $begingroup$

                  As an aside from finding the exact expectation, you can use Jensen's inequality, which says that for a random variable $X$ and a convex function $g$,



                  $$Eleft[g(X)right]ge gleft(Eleft[Xright]right)$$



                  , provided the expectations exist.



                  Verify that $g(x)=e^{-x}$ is a convex function from the fact that $g''>0$.



                  The equality does not hold because $g$ is not an affine function or a constant function.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  As an aside from finding the exact expectation, you can use Jensen's inequality, which says that for a random variable $X$ and a convex function $g$,



                  $$Eleft[g(X)right]ge gleft(Eleft[Xright]right)$$



                  , provided the expectations exist.



                  Verify that $g(x)=e^{-x}$ is a convex function from the fact that $g''>0$.



                  The equality does not hold because $g$ is not an affine function or a constant function.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 22 at 21:16









                  StubbornAtomStubbornAtom

                  3,0581535




                  3,0581535






























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