Why is $x+e^{-x}>0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}$? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey...
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Why is $x+e^{-x}>0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}$?
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InSimplest or nicest proof that $1+x le e^x$What is the limit of this function as $n$ tends to infinity? (something to the power of e)Limit question: $lim_{xto infty}f(x),;; lim_{xto -infty}f(x)$?Does $displaystylelim_{ntoinfty}frac{n}{n+1} = 1$?Calculus - Finding the rate of change of an edge of a cube.Calculus -as X approaches O or infinityProve limit exists for an almost monotonic bounded function, involves convexity and square integrabilityCan I not use L'hopital rule here?What do second order partial derivatives mean in graphs?Find the simplest counterexample against exchanging limit and summationIf $f : [a, infty) → Bbb R$ is monotonically decreasing and the integral $int_0^infty f(x) ,dx$ is convergent, then $lim_{x→infty} f(x) = 0$.
$begingroup$
Denote $f(x) = x + e^{-x}$. Note that $f(0) = 1$ and $f'(x) = 1-e^{-x}$. That means
$$lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f'(x) = -infty.$$
So if the rate of change of $f(x)$ keeps decreasing exponentially fast to negative infinity, why is $lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f(x) = +infty$?
I think I am missing something really simple here. Please help.
calculus limits
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Denote $f(x) = x + e^{-x}$. Note that $f(0) = 1$ and $f'(x) = 1-e^{-x}$. That means
$$lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f'(x) = -infty.$$
So if the rate of change of $f(x)$ keeps decreasing exponentially fast to negative infinity, why is $lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f(x) = +infty$?
I think I am missing something really simple here. Please help.
calculus limits
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Addressing the title, for all $x, e^{-x}ge1-x$ so $x+e^{-x}ge1>0$
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Mar 21 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
To show $x+e^{-x}> 0$, you want to show $e^{-x}> -x$. In fact, we have $e^{t}ge t+1$ for all real $t$. So $e^{-x}ge -x+1> -x$ for all real $x$, as desired.
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 21 at 4:46
4
$begingroup$
Roughly speaking - if you are visualising $x$ going from $0$ to $-infty$, then the graph is not decreasing but increasing exponentially fast, because you are going "backwards".
$endgroup$
– David
Mar 21 at 4:49
1
$begingroup$
Thank you. That's what I was missing. Going backward. :(
$endgroup$
– Paichu
Mar 21 at 4:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Denote $f(x) = x + e^{-x}$. Note that $f(0) = 1$ and $f'(x) = 1-e^{-x}$. That means
$$lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f'(x) = -infty.$$
So if the rate of change of $f(x)$ keeps decreasing exponentially fast to negative infinity, why is $lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f(x) = +infty$?
I think I am missing something really simple here. Please help.
calculus limits
$endgroup$
Denote $f(x) = x + e^{-x}$. Note that $f(0) = 1$ and $f'(x) = 1-e^{-x}$. That means
$$lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f'(x) = -infty.$$
So if the rate of change of $f(x)$ keeps decreasing exponentially fast to negative infinity, why is $lim_{xrightarrow -infty} f(x) = +infty$?
I think I am missing something really simple here. Please help.
calculus limits
calculus limits
edited Mar 21 at 6:31
David G. Stork
12.2k41836
12.2k41836
asked Mar 21 at 4:42
PaichuPaichu
804616
804616
$begingroup$
Addressing the title, for all $x, e^{-x}ge1-x$ so $x+e^{-x}ge1>0$
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Mar 21 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
To show $x+e^{-x}> 0$, you want to show $e^{-x}> -x$. In fact, we have $e^{t}ge t+1$ for all real $t$. So $e^{-x}ge -x+1> -x$ for all real $x$, as desired.
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 21 at 4:46
4
$begingroup$
Roughly speaking - if you are visualising $x$ going from $0$ to $-infty$, then the graph is not decreasing but increasing exponentially fast, because you are going "backwards".
$endgroup$
– David
Mar 21 at 4:49
1
$begingroup$
Thank you. That's what I was missing. Going backward. :(
$endgroup$
– Paichu
Mar 21 at 4:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Addressing the title, for all $x, e^{-x}ge1-x$ so $x+e^{-x}ge1>0$
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Mar 21 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
To show $x+e^{-x}> 0$, you want to show $e^{-x}> -x$. In fact, we have $e^{t}ge t+1$ for all real $t$. So $e^{-x}ge -x+1> -x$ for all real $x$, as desired.
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 21 at 4:46
4
$begingroup$
Roughly speaking - if you are visualising $x$ going from $0$ to $-infty$, then the graph is not decreasing but increasing exponentially fast, because you are going "backwards".
$endgroup$
– David
Mar 21 at 4:49
1
$begingroup$
Thank you. That's what I was missing. Going backward. :(
$endgroup$
– Paichu
Mar 21 at 4:50
$begingroup$
Addressing the title, for all $x, e^{-x}ge1-x$ so $x+e^{-x}ge1>0$
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Mar 21 at 4:45
$begingroup$
Addressing the title, for all $x, e^{-x}ge1-x$ so $x+e^{-x}ge1>0$
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Mar 21 at 4:45
1
1
$begingroup$
To show $x+e^{-x}> 0$, you want to show $e^{-x}> -x$. In fact, we have $e^{t}ge t+1$ for all real $t$. So $e^{-x}ge -x+1> -x$ for all real $x$, as desired.
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 21 at 4:46
$begingroup$
To show $x+e^{-x}> 0$, you want to show $e^{-x}> -x$. In fact, we have $e^{t}ge t+1$ for all real $t$. So $e^{-x}ge -x+1> -x$ for all real $x$, as desired.
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 21 at 4:46
4
4
$begingroup$
Roughly speaking - if you are visualising $x$ going from $0$ to $-infty$, then the graph is not decreasing but increasing exponentially fast, because you are going "backwards".
$endgroup$
– David
Mar 21 at 4:49
$begingroup$
Roughly speaking - if you are visualising $x$ going from $0$ to $-infty$, then the graph is not decreasing but increasing exponentially fast, because you are going "backwards".
$endgroup$
– David
Mar 21 at 4:49
1
1
$begingroup$
Thank you. That's what I was missing. Going backward. :(
$endgroup$
– Paichu
Mar 21 at 4:50
$begingroup$
Thank you. That's what I was missing. Going backward. :(
$endgroup$
– Paichu
Mar 21 at 4:50
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You have got your directions mixed up.
When the derivative is negative, the function is decreasing from left to right i.e. its graph is coming down from left to right. Which is the same as , going right to left its graph is going up or it is increasing, which is the phenomena observed here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take
$x < y < 0; tag 1$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y f'(s); ds = int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds; tag 2$
it is clear that, for any $M < 0$, there exists $y_0 < 0$ such that
$s < y_0 Longrightarrow 1 - e^{-s} < M; tag 3$
if we now choose
$y < y_0, tag 4$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds < int_x^y M ; ds = M(y - x); tag 5$
we re-arrange this inequality:
$f(x) - f(y) > -M(y - x) = M(x - y), tag 6$
$f(x) > f(y) + M(x - y); tag 7$
we now fix $y$ and let $x to -infty$; then since $M < 0$ and $x - y < 0$ for $x < y$,
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty} f(y) + M(x - y) = infty, tag 8$
and hence
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty}f(x) = infty tag 9$
as well.
We note that (9) binds despite the fact that $f'(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$; though this derivative is negative, when $x$ decreases we are "walking back up the hill," as it were; as $x$ decreases, $f(x)$ increases.
Note Added in Edit, Wednesday 20 March 2019 10:39 PM PST: We may also dispense with the title question and show
$x + e^{-x} > 0, forall x in Bbb R; tag{10}$
for
$x ge 0, tag{11}$
$e^{-x} > 0 tag{12}$
as well, hence we also have
$x + e^{-x} > 0; tag{13}$
for
$x < 0, tag{14}$
we may use the power series for $e^{-x}$:
$e^{-x} = 1 - x + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3} + ldots; tag{15}$
then
$x + e^{-x} = 1 + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3!} + ldots > 0, tag{16}$
since every term on the right is positive when $x < 0$. End of Note.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that $f''(x) = e^{-x} >0$ so $f$ is strictly convex.
Since $f'(0) = 0$, we see that $f(x) ge f(0) = 1$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
- $forall x in mathbb{R} : x+e^{-x}>0 Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :e^{-x}>-x Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :color{blue}{boxed{e^{x}>x}}$
The last inequality follows directly by Taylor:
$$color{blue}{e^x} = 1+x + underbrace{frac{e^{xi}}{2}x^2}_{geq 0} color{blue}{> x}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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4 Answers
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active
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You have got your directions mixed up.
When the derivative is negative, the function is decreasing from left to right i.e. its graph is coming down from left to right. Which is the same as , going right to left its graph is going up or it is increasing, which is the phenomena observed here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have got your directions mixed up.
When the derivative is negative, the function is decreasing from left to right i.e. its graph is coming down from left to right. Which is the same as , going right to left its graph is going up or it is increasing, which is the phenomena observed here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have got your directions mixed up.
When the derivative is negative, the function is decreasing from left to right i.e. its graph is coming down from left to right. Which is the same as , going right to left its graph is going up or it is increasing, which is the phenomena observed here.
$endgroup$
You have got your directions mixed up.
When the derivative is negative, the function is decreasing from left to right i.e. its graph is coming down from left to right. Which is the same as , going right to left its graph is going up or it is increasing, which is the phenomena observed here.
answered Mar 21 at 4:51
астон вілла олоф мэллбэргастон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
40.3k33678
40.3k33678
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take
$x < y < 0; tag 1$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y f'(s); ds = int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds; tag 2$
it is clear that, for any $M < 0$, there exists $y_0 < 0$ such that
$s < y_0 Longrightarrow 1 - e^{-s} < M; tag 3$
if we now choose
$y < y_0, tag 4$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds < int_x^y M ; ds = M(y - x); tag 5$
we re-arrange this inequality:
$f(x) - f(y) > -M(y - x) = M(x - y), tag 6$
$f(x) > f(y) + M(x - y); tag 7$
we now fix $y$ and let $x to -infty$; then since $M < 0$ and $x - y < 0$ for $x < y$,
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty} f(y) + M(x - y) = infty, tag 8$
and hence
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty}f(x) = infty tag 9$
as well.
We note that (9) binds despite the fact that $f'(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$; though this derivative is negative, when $x$ decreases we are "walking back up the hill," as it were; as $x$ decreases, $f(x)$ increases.
Note Added in Edit, Wednesday 20 March 2019 10:39 PM PST: We may also dispense with the title question and show
$x + e^{-x} > 0, forall x in Bbb R; tag{10}$
for
$x ge 0, tag{11}$
$e^{-x} > 0 tag{12}$
as well, hence we also have
$x + e^{-x} > 0; tag{13}$
for
$x < 0, tag{14}$
we may use the power series for $e^{-x}$:
$e^{-x} = 1 - x + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3} + ldots; tag{15}$
then
$x + e^{-x} = 1 + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3!} + ldots > 0, tag{16}$
since every term on the right is positive when $x < 0$. End of Note.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take
$x < y < 0; tag 1$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y f'(s); ds = int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds; tag 2$
it is clear that, for any $M < 0$, there exists $y_0 < 0$ such that
$s < y_0 Longrightarrow 1 - e^{-s} < M; tag 3$
if we now choose
$y < y_0, tag 4$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds < int_x^y M ; ds = M(y - x); tag 5$
we re-arrange this inequality:
$f(x) - f(y) > -M(y - x) = M(x - y), tag 6$
$f(x) > f(y) + M(x - y); tag 7$
we now fix $y$ and let $x to -infty$; then since $M < 0$ and $x - y < 0$ for $x < y$,
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty} f(y) + M(x - y) = infty, tag 8$
and hence
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty}f(x) = infty tag 9$
as well.
We note that (9) binds despite the fact that $f'(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$; though this derivative is negative, when $x$ decreases we are "walking back up the hill," as it were; as $x$ decreases, $f(x)$ increases.
Note Added in Edit, Wednesday 20 March 2019 10:39 PM PST: We may also dispense with the title question and show
$x + e^{-x} > 0, forall x in Bbb R; tag{10}$
for
$x ge 0, tag{11}$
$e^{-x} > 0 tag{12}$
as well, hence we also have
$x + e^{-x} > 0; tag{13}$
for
$x < 0, tag{14}$
we may use the power series for $e^{-x}$:
$e^{-x} = 1 - x + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3} + ldots; tag{15}$
then
$x + e^{-x} = 1 + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3!} + ldots > 0, tag{16}$
since every term on the right is positive when $x < 0$. End of Note.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take
$x < y < 0; tag 1$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y f'(s); ds = int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds; tag 2$
it is clear that, for any $M < 0$, there exists $y_0 < 0$ such that
$s < y_0 Longrightarrow 1 - e^{-s} < M; tag 3$
if we now choose
$y < y_0, tag 4$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds < int_x^y M ; ds = M(y - x); tag 5$
we re-arrange this inequality:
$f(x) - f(y) > -M(y - x) = M(x - y), tag 6$
$f(x) > f(y) + M(x - y); tag 7$
we now fix $y$ and let $x to -infty$; then since $M < 0$ and $x - y < 0$ for $x < y$,
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty} f(y) + M(x - y) = infty, tag 8$
and hence
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty}f(x) = infty tag 9$
as well.
We note that (9) binds despite the fact that $f'(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$; though this derivative is negative, when $x$ decreases we are "walking back up the hill," as it were; as $x$ decreases, $f(x)$ increases.
Note Added in Edit, Wednesday 20 March 2019 10:39 PM PST: We may also dispense with the title question and show
$x + e^{-x} > 0, forall x in Bbb R; tag{10}$
for
$x ge 0, tag{11}$
$e^{-x} > 0 tag{12}$
as well, hence we also have
$x + e^{-x} > 0; tag{13}$
for
$x < 0, tag{14}$
we may use the power series for $e^{-x}$:
$e^{-x} = 1 - x + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3} + ldots; tag{15}$
then
$x + e^{-x} = 1 + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3!} + ldots > 0, tag{16}$
since every term on the right is positive when $x < 0$. End of Note.
$endgroup$
Take
$x < y < 0; tag 1$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y f'(s); ds = int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds; tag 2$
it is clear that, for any $M < 0$, there exists $y_0 < 0$ such that
$s < y_0 Longrightarrow 1 - e^{-s} < M; tag 3$
if we now choose
$y < y_0, tag 4$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = displaystyle int_x^y (1 - e^{-s}); ds < int_x^y M ; ds = M(y - x); tag 5$
we re-arrange this inequality:
$f(x) - f(y) > -M(y - x) = M(x - y), tag 6$
$f(x) > f(y) + M(x - y); tag 7$
we now fix $y$ and let $x to -infty$; then since $M < 0$ and $x - y < 0$ for $x < y$,
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty} f(y) + M(x - y) = infty, tag 8$
and hence
$displaystyle lim_{x to -infty}f(x) = infty tag 9$
as well.
We note that (9) binds despite the fact that $f'(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$; though this derivative is negative, when $x$ decreases we are "walking back up the hill," as it were; as $x$ decreases, $f(x)$ increases.
Note Added in Edit, Wednesday 20 March 2019 10:39 PM PST: We may also dispense with the title question and show
$x + e^{-x} > 0, forall x in Bbb R; tag{10}$
for
$x ge 0, tag{11}$
$e^{-x} > 0 tag{12}$
as well, hence we also have
$x + e^{-x} > 0; tag{13}$
for
$x < 0, tag{14}$
we may use the power series for $e^{-x}$:
$e^{-x} = 1 - x + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3} + ldots; tag{15}$
then
$x + e^{-x} = 1 + dfrac{x^2}{2!} - dfrac{x^3}{3!} + ldots > 0, tag{16}$
since every term on the right is positive when $x < 0$. End of Note.
edited Mar 21 at 5:46
answered Mar 21 at 5:29
Robert LewisRobert Lewis
48.9k23168
48.9k23168
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that $f''(x) = e^{-x} >0$ so $f$ is strictly convex.
Since $f'(0) = 0$, we see that $f(x) ge f(0) = 1$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that $f''(x) = e^{-x} >0$ so $f$ is strictly convex.
Since $f'(0) = 0$, we see that $f(x) ge f(0) = 1$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that $f''(x) = e^{-x} >0$ so $f$ is strictly convex.
Since $f'(0) = 0$, we see that $f(x) ge f(0) = 1$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
Note that $f''(x) = e^{-x} >0$ so $f$ is strictly convex.
Since $f'(0) = 0$, we see that $f(x) ge f(0) = 1$ for all $x$.
answered Mar 21 at 4:51
copper.hatcopper.hat
128k561161
128k561161
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
- $forall x in mathbb{R} : x+e^{-x}>0 Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :e^{-x}>-x Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :color{blue}{boxed{e^{x}>x}}$
The last inequality follows directly by Taylor:
$$color{blue}{e^x} = 1+x + underbrace{frac{e^{xi}}{2}x^2}_{geq 0} color{blue}{> x}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
- $forall x in mathbb{R} : x+e^{-x}>0 Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :e^{-x}>-x Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :color{blue}{boxed{e^{x}>x}}$
The last inequality follows directly by Taylor:
$$color{blue}{e^x} = 1+x + underbrace{frac{e^{xi}}{2}x^2}_{geq 0} color{blue}{> x}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
- $forall x in mathbb{R} : x+e^{-x}>0 Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :e^{-x}>-x Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :color{blue}{boxed{e^{x}>x}}$
The last inequality follows directly by Taylor:
$$color{blue}{e^x} = 1+x + underbrace{frac{e^{xi}}{2}x^2}_{geq 0} color{blue}{> x}$$
$endgroup$
Note that
- $forall x in mathbb{R} : x+e^{-x}>0 Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :e^{-x}>-x Leftrightarrow forall x in mathbb{R} :color{blue}{boxed{e^{x}>x}}$
The last inequality follows directly by Taylor:
$$color{blue}{e^x} = 1+x + underbrace{frac{e^{xi}}{2}x^2}_{geq 0} color{blue}{> x}$$
answered Mar 21 at 7:03
trancelocationtrancelocation
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$begingroup$
Addressing the title, for all $x, e^{-x}ge1-x$ so $x+e^{-x}ge1>0$
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Mar 21 at 4:45
1
$begingroup$
To show $x+e^{-x}> 0$, you want to show $e^{-x}> -x$. In fact, we have $e^{t}ge t+1$ for all real $t$. So $e^{-x}ge -x+1> -x$ for all real $x$, as desired.
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 21 at 4:46
4
$begingroup$
Roughly speaking - if you are visualising $x$ going from $0$ to $-infty$, then the graph is not decreasing but increasing exponentially fast, because you are going "backwards".
$endgroup$
– David
Mar 21 at 4:49
1
$begingroup$
Thank you. That's what I was missing. Going backward. :(
$endgroup$
– Paichu
Mar 21 at 4:50