Why is $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$reduced relative homologyDirectly showing $H_0(X, x_0) cong...

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Why is $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$


reduced relative homologyDirectly showing $H_0(X, x_0) cong widetilde{H}_0(X)$?$H_0(X) cong tilde{H}_0(X) oplus mathbb{Z}$Proving that $H_0(X)=tilde{H_0}(X)oplusmathbb{Z}$Why is the inclusion an isomorphism?Why is $H_0(X)cong tilde{H}_0(X)oplus mathbb{Z}$?Proving $tilde H_0(X) approx H_0(X,x_0)$ question$H_0(iota):H_0(mathbb{S^1})to H_o(mathbb{D}^2)$ is the zeroRotman's proof of $H_1(X,x_0) cong H_1(X)$Why is homology of pointed spaces the same as reduced homology of the space.













0












$begingroup$


enter image description here



We know $tilde H_n(X) cong tilde H_n(X,x_0)=H_n(X,x_0)$ for all $nge 0$.



Also, when $n>0$, we have $H_n(X)cong tilde H_n(X) cong H_n(X,x_0)$.



However, when $n=0$, we have $H_0(X)cong tilde H_0(X) oplus mathbb Z cong H_0(X,x_0) oplus mathbb Z$. If $X$ is non-empty and path connected we have $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$. So, $H_0(X,x_0) =0$.



So why do we have $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ but $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Did you not just give an explanation yourself?
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I computed $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ and $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$, but I have no intuition for why $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$. One would think, a priori, $H_0(X,x_0) cong H_0(X)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Wolfgang
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    Well there is a reason that reduced homology is introduced. It is because sometimes it is more appropriate, like here. If it helps, reduced homology is more analogous to homotopy groups because $pi_0$ of a path connected space is trivial while this is not true for homology in the zeroth degree until you reduce it.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    In fact, for good spaces $H_*(X,A)cong H_*(X)/H_*(A)$, and this is a good first approximation for your intuition. It immediately implies that $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ for path connected spaces.
    $endgroup$
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    yesterday
















0












$begingroup$


enter image description here



We know $tilde H_n(X) cong tilde H_n(X,x_0)=H_n(X,x_0)$ for all $nge 0$.



Also, when $n>0$, we have $H_n(X)cong tilde H_n(X) cong H_n(X,x_0)$.



However, when $n=0$, we have $H_0(X)cong tilde H_0(X) oplus mathbb Z cong H_0(X,x_0) oplus mathbb Z$. If $X$ is non-empty and path connected we have $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$. So, $H_0(X,x_0) =0$.



So why do we have $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ but $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Did you not just give an explanation yourself?
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I computed $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ and $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$, but I have no intuition for why $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$. One would think, a priori, $H_0(X,x_0) cong H_0(X)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Wolfgang
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    Well there is a reason that reduced homology is introduced. It is because sometimes it is more appropriate, like here. If it helps, reduced homology is more analogous to homotopy groups because $pi_0$ of a path connected space is trivial while this is not true for homology in the zeroth degree until you reduce it.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    In fact, for good spaces $H_*(X,A)cong H_*(X)/H_*(A)$, and this is a good first approximation for your intuition. It immediately implies that $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ for path connected spaces.
    $endgroup$
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    yesterday














0












0








0





$begingroup$


enter image description here



We know $tilde H_n(X) cong tilde H_n(X,x_0)=H_n(X,x_0)$ for all $nge 0$.



Also, when $n>0$, we have $H_n(X)cong tilde H_n(X) cong H_n(X,x_0)$.



However, when $n=0$, we have $H_0(X)cong tilde H_0(X) oplus mathbb Z cong H_0(X,x_0) oplus mathbb Z$. If $X$ is non-empty and path connected we have $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$. So, $H_0(X,x_0) =0$.



So why do we have $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ but $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




enter image description here



We know $tilde H_n(X) cong tilde H_n(X,x_0)=H_n(X,x_0)$ for all $nge 0$.



Also, when $n>0$, we have $H_n(X)cong tilde H_n(X) cong H_n(X,x_0)$.



However, when $n=0$, we have $H_0(X)cong tilde H_0(X) oplus mathbb Z cong H_0(X,x_0) oplus mathbb Z$. If $X$ is non-empty and path connected we have $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$. So, $H_0(X,x_0) =0$.



So why do we have $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ but $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$?







algebraic-topology homology-cohomology intuition






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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked yesterday









WolfgangWolfgang

4,31443377




4,31443377












  • $begingroup$
    Did you not just give an explanation yourself?
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I computed $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ and $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$, but I have no intuition for why $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$. One would think, a priori, $H_0(X,x_0) cong H_0(X)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Wolfgang
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    Well there is a reason that reduced homology is introduced. It is because sometimes it is more appropriate, like here. If it helps, reduced homology is more analogous to homotopy groups because $pi_0$ of a path connected space is trivial while this is not true for homology in the zeroth degree until you reduce it.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    In fact, for good spaces $H_*(X,A)cong H_*(X)/H_*(A)$, and this is a good first approximation for your intuition. It immediately implies that $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ for path connected spaces.
    $endgroup$
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    yesterday


















  • $begingroup$
    Did you not just give an explanation yourself?
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    I computed $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ and $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$, but I have no intuition for why $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$. One would think, a priori, $H_0(X,x_0) cong H_0(X)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Wolfgang
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    Well there is a reason that reduced homology is introduced. It is because sometimes it is more appropriate, like here. If it helps, reduced homology is more analogous to homotopy groups because $pi_0$ of a path connected space is trivial while this is not true for homology in the zeroth degree until you reduce it.
    $endgroup$
    – Connor Malin
    yesterday












  • $begingroup$
    In fact, for good spaces $H_*(X,A)cong H_*(X)/H_*(A)$, and this is a good first approximation for your intuition. It immediately implies that $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ for path connected spaces.
    $endgroup$
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    yesterday
















$begingroup$
Did you not just give an explanation yourself?
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
yesterday






$begingroup$
Did you not just give an explanation yourself?
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
yesterday














$begingroup$
I computed $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ and $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$, but I have no intuition for why $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$. One would think, a priori, $H_0(X,x_0) cong H_0(X)$.
$endgroup$
– Wolfgang
yesterday






$begingroup$
I computed $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ and $H_0(X) cong mathbb Z$, but I have no intuition for why $H_0(X,x_0) ne H_0(X)$. One would think, a priori, $H_0(X,x_0) cong H_0(X)$.
$endgroup$
– Wolfgang
yesterday














$begingroup$
Well there is a reason that reduced homology is introduced. It is because sometimes it is more appropriate, like here. If it helps, reduced homology is more analogous to homotopy groups because $pi_0$ of a path connected space is trivial while this is not true for homology in the zeroth degree until you reduce it.
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
yesterday






$begingroup$
Well there is a reason that reduced homology is introduced. It is because sometimes it is more appropriate, like here. If it helps, reduced homology is more analogous to homotopy groups because $pi_0$ of a path connected space is trivial while this is not true for homology in the zeroth degree until you reduce it.
$endgroup$
– Connor Malin
yesterday














$begingroup$
In fact, for good spaces $H_*(X,A)cong H_*(X)/H_*(A)$, and this is a good first approximation for your intuition. It immediately implies that $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ for path connected spaces.
$endgroup$
– Cheerful Parsnip
yesterday




$begingroup$
In fact, for good spaces $H_*(X,A)cong H_*(X)/H_*(A)$, and this is a good first approximation for your intuition. It immediately implies that $H_0(X,x_0)=0$ for path connected spaces.
$endgroup$
– Cheerful Parsnip
yesterday










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

As you said, for a pointed space $(X, x_0)$ the reduced homology is defined as



$$tilde{H}_n(X) = H(X, x_0) $$



Considering the inclusion of the basepoint $iotacolon {x_0} to X$ gives a long exact sequence



$$dots to H_n(x_0) to H_n(X) to H_n(X,x_0) to H_{n-1}(x_0) todots $$



Since $H_n(x_0)$ vanishes for $n>0$ we see that $H_n(X) cong tilde{H}_n(X)$ for all $n>0$. However we can also see that $H_0(X)cong tilde{H}_0(X)oplus mathbb{Z}$, so these don't agree in degree $0$. Intuitively, the $0$-th reduced homology group is ignoring the component of the basepoint.



The intuition is that for pointed spaces we want to consider the information coming from the basepoint as being trivial. In singular homology this information is just a copy of the coefficient group in degree $0$ (indicating that a single point is connected) so our reduced homology ignores this group. Similarly, if $h$ is any homology (or cohomology) theory, then for a pointed space the inclusion of the basepoint induces a splitting



$$ h_*(X) cong tilde{h}_*(X)oplus h_*(x_0) $$



This splitting is more interesting in theories like $K$-theory where $K^n(x_0)$ is non-zero for infinitely many values of $n$.



The reason we care about reduced homology is because sometimes it behaves more naturally than un-reduced, for example the suspension theorem $tilde{H}_n(X) cong tilde{H}_{n+1}(Sigma X)$ is not true for unreduced homology. Overall it's a more appropriate functor for the category of pointed spaces.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    As you already seem to know that $H_0(X)congmathbb Z$ for a path connected space $X$ and the standard argument for that is geometric in nature i will geometrically explain why $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.



    Recall that $H_n(X,A)$ is the homology of the chain complex
    $$...to C_{n+1}(X)/C_{n+1}(A)to C_n(X)/C_n(A)to C_{n-1}(X)/C_{n-1}(A)to ...$$



    where $C_n(X)$ is a free abelian group with a basis given by all the $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ and boundary operator induced by the usual boundary operator.



    There is a more geometric description of this relative complex:



    One can think of $C_n(X)/C_n(A)$ as a free abelian group with a basis given by all $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ whose image does not lie entirely in $A$ and with this interpretation applying the boundary operator is just applying the ususal boundary operator and then forgetting all simplices which lie entirely in $A$. We will now use this interpretation:



    Let $X$ be a path connected space and $x_0in X$. What are the cycles in $C_0(X)/C_0({x_0})$? They are precisely elements generated by the $0$-simplices $sigma_x : Delta^0to {x}subseteq X$ with $xneq x_0$. However for any such $x$ there is a path $gamma$ from $x_0$ to $x$. Now the ususal boundary of the corresponding simplex $sigma_gamma$ is $sigma_x-sigma_{x_0}$ but here $sigma_{x_0}$ gets ignored so the boundary is just $sigma_x$. In particular $[sigma_x]=0$ in $H_0(X,x_0)$, so $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      2 Answers
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      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2












      $begingroup$

      As you said, for a pointed space $(X, x_0)$ the reduced homology is defined as



      $$tilde{H}_n(X) = H(X, x_0) $$



      Considering the inclusion of the basepoint $iotacolon {x_0} to X$ gives a long exact sequence



      $$dots to H_n(x_0) to H_n(X) to H_n(X,x_0) to H_{n-1}(x_0) todots $$



      Since $H_n(x_0)$ vanishes for $n>0$ we see that $H_n(X) cong tilde{H}_n(X)$ for all $n>0$. However we can also see that $H_0(X)cong tilde{H}_0(X)oplus mathbb{Z}$, so these don't agree in degree $0$. Intuitively, the $0$-th reduced homology group is ignoring the component of the basepoint.



      The intuition is that for pointed spaces we want to consider the information coming from the basepoint as being trivial. In singular homology this information is just a copy of the coefficient group in degree $0$ (indicating that a single point is connected) so our reduced homology ignores this group. Similarly, if $h$ is any homology (or cohomology) theory, then for a pointed space the inclusion of the basepoint induces a splitting



      $$ h_*(X) cong tilde{h}_*(X)oplus h_*(x_0) $$



      This splitting is more interesting in theories like $K$-theory where $K^n(x_0)$ is non-zero for infinitely many values of $n$.



      The reason we care about reduced homology is because sometimes it behaves more naturally than un-reduced, for example the suspension theorem $tilde{H}_n(X) cong tilde{H}_{n+1}(Sigma X)$ is not true for unreduced homology. Overall it's a more appropriate functor for the category of pointed spaces.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        As you said, for a pointed space $(X, x_0)$ the reduced homology is defined as



        $$tilde{H}_n(X) = H(X, x_0) $$



        Considering the inclusion of the basepoint $iotacolon {x_0} to X$ gives a long exact sequence



        $$dots to H_n(x_0) to H_n(X) to H_n(X,x_0) to H_{n-1}(x_0) todots $$



        Since $H_n(x_0)$ vanishes for $n>0$ we see that $H_n(X) cong tilde{H}_n(X)$ for all $n>0$. However we can also see that $H_0(X)cong tilde{H}_0(X)oplus mathbb{Z}$, so these don't agree in degree $0$. Intuitively, the $0$-th reduced homology group is ignoring the component of the basepoint.



        The intuition is that for pointed spaces we want to consider the information coming from the basepoint as being trivial. In singular homology this information is just a copy of the coefficient group in degree $0$ (indicating that a single point is connected) so our reduced homology ignores this group. Similarly, if $h$ is any homology (or cohomology) theory, then for a pointed space the inclusion of the basepoint induces a splitting



        $$ h_*(X) cong tilde{h}_*(X)oplus h_*(x_0) $$



        This splitting is more interesting in theories like $K$-theory where $K^n(x_0)$ is non-zero for infinitely many values of $n$.



        The reason we care about reduced homology is because sometimes it behaves more naturally than un-reduced, for example the suspension theorem $tilde{H}_n(X) cong tilde{H}_{n+1}(Sigma X)$ is not true for unreduced homology. Overall it's a more appropriate functor for the category of pointed spaces.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          As you said, for a pointed space $(X, x_0)$ the reduced homology is defined as



          $$tilde{H}_n(X) = H(X, x_0) $$



          Considering the inclusion of the basepoint $iotacolon {x_0} to X$ gives a long exact sequence



          $$dots to H_n(x_0) to H_n(X) to H_n(X,x_0) to H_{n-1}(x_0) todots $$



          Since $H_n(x_0)$ vanishes for $n>0$ we see that $H_n(X) cong tilde{H}_n(X)$ for all $n>0$. However we can also see that $H_0(X)cong tilde{H}_0(X)oplus mathbb{Z}$, so these don't agree in degree $0$. Intuitively, the $0$-th reduced homology group is ignoring the component of the basepoint.



          The intuition is that for pointed spaces we want to consider the information coming from the basepoint as being trivial. In singular homology this information is just a copy of the coefficient group in degree $0$ (indicating that a single point is connected) so our reduced homology ignores this group. Similarly, if $h$ is any homology (or cohomology) theory, then for a pointed space the inclusion of the basepoint induces a splitting



          $$ h_*(X) cong tilde{h}_*(X)oplus h_*(x_0) $$



          This splitting is more interesting in theories like $K$-theory where $K^n(x_0)$ is non-zero for infinitely many values of $n$.



          The reason we care about reduced homology is because sometimes it behaves more naturally than un-reduced, for example the suspension theorem $tilde{H}_n(X) cong tilde{H}_{n+1}(Sigma X)$ is not true for unreduced homology. Overall it's a more appropriate functor for the category of pointed spaces.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          As you said, for a pointed space $(X, x_0)$ the reduced homology is defined as



          $$tilde{H}_n(X) = H(X, x_0) $$



          Considering the inclusion of the basepoint $iotacolon {x_0} to X$ gives a long exact sequence



          $$dots to H_n(x_0) to H_n(X) to H_n(X,x_0) to H_{n-1}(x_0) todots $$



          Since $H_n(x_0)$ vanishes for $n>0$ we see that $H_n(X) cong tilde{H}_n(X)$ for all $n>0$. However we can also see that $H_0(X)cong tilde{H}_0(X)oplus mathbb{Z}$, so these don't agree in degree $0$. Intuitively, the $0$-th reduced homology group is ignoring the component of the basepoint.



          The intuition is that for pointed spaces we want to consider the information coming from the basepoint as being trivial. In singular homology this information is just a copy of the coefficient group in degree $0$ (indicating that a single point is connected) so our reduced homology ignores this group. Similarly, if $h$ is any homology (or cohomology) theory, then for a pointed space the inclusion of the basepoint induces a splitting



          $$ h_*(X) cong tilde{h}_*(X)oplus h_*(x_0) $$



          This splitting is more interesting in theories like $K$-theory where $K^n(x_0)$ is non-zero for infinitely many values of $n$.



          The reason we care about reduced homology is because sometimes it behaves more naturally than un-reduced, for example the suspension theorem $tilde{H}_n(X) cong tilde{H}_{n+1}(Sigma X)$ is not true for unreduced homology. Overall it's a more appropriate functor for the category of pointed spaces.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited yesterday

























          answered yesterday









          WilliamWilliam

          2,5401224




          2,5401224























              2












              $begingroup$

              As you already seem to know that $H_0(X)congmathbb Z$ for a path connected space $X$ and the standard argument for that is geometric in nature i will geometrically explain why $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.



              Recall that $H_n(X,A)$ is the homology of the chain complex
              $$...to C_{n+1}(X)/C_{n+1}(A)to C_n(X)/C_n(A)to C_{n-1}(X)/C_{n-1}(A)to ...$$



              where $C_n(X)$ is a free abelian group with a basis given by all the $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ and boundary operator induced by the usual boundary operator.



              There is a more geometric description of this relative complex:



              One can think of $C_n(X)/C_n(A)$ as a free abelian group with a basis given by all $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ whose image does not lie entirely in $A$ and with this interpretation applying the boundary operator is just applying the ususal boundary operator and then forgetting all simplices which lie entirely in $A$. We will now use this interpretation:



              Let $X$ be a path connected space and $x_0in X$. What are the cycles in $C_0(X)/C_0({x_0})$? They are precisely elements generated by the $0$-simplices $sigma_x : Delta^0to {x}subseteq X$ with $xneq x_0$. However for any such $x$ there is a path $gamma$ from $x_0$ to $x$. Now the ususal boundary of the corresponding simplex $sigma_gamma$ is $sigma_x-sigma_{x_0}$ but here $sigma_{x_0}$ gets ignored so the boundary is just $sigma_x$. In particular $[sigma_x]=0$ in $H_0(X,x_0)$, so $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                As you already seem to know that $H_0(X)congmathbb Z$ for a path connected space $X$ and the standard argument for that is geometric in nature i will geometrically explain why $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.



                Recall that $H_n(X,A)$ is the homology of the chain complex
                $$...to C_{n+1}(X)/C_{n+1}(A)to C_n(X)/C_n(A)to C_{n-1}(X)/C_{n-1}(A)to ...$$



                where $C_n(X)$ is a free abelian group with a basis given by all the $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ and boundary operator induced by the usual boundary operator.



                There is a more geometric description of this relative complex:



                One can think of $C_n(X)/C_n(A)$ as a free abelian group with a basis given by all $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ whose image does not lie entirely in $A$ and with this interpretation applying the boundary operator is just applying the ususal boundary operator and then forgetting all simplices which lie entirely in $A$. We will now use this interpretation:



                Let $X$ be a path connected space and $x_0in X$. What are the cycles in $C_0(X)/C_0({x_0})$? They are precisely elements generated by the $0$-simplices $sigma_x : Delta^0to {x}subseteq X$ with $xneq x_0$. However for any such $x$ there is a path $gamma$ from $x_0$ to $x$. Now the ususal boundary of the corresponding simplex $sigma_gamma$ is $sigma_x-sigma_{x_0}$ but here $sigma_{x_0}$ gets ignored so the boundary is just $sigma_x$. In particular $[sigma_x]=0$ in $H_0(X,x_0)$, so $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  As you already seem to know that $H_0(X)congmathbb Z$ for a path connected space $X$ and the standard argument for that is geometric in nature i will geometrically explain why $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.



                  Recall that $H_n(X,A)$ is the homology of the chain complex
                  $$...to C_{n+1}(X)/C_{n+1}(A)to C_n(X)/C_n(A)to C_{n-1}(X)/C_{n-1}(A)to ...$$



                  where $C_n(X)$ is a free abelian group with a basis given by all the $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ and boundary operator induced by the usual boundary operator.



                  There is a more geometric description of this relative complex:



                  One can think of $C_n(X)/C_n(A)$ as a free abelian group with a basis given by all $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ whose image does not lie entirely in $A$ and with this interpretation applying the boundary operator is just applying the ususal boundary operator and then forgetting all simplices which lie entirely in $A$. We will now use this interpretation:



                  Let $X$ be a path connected space and $x_0in X$. What are the cycles in $C_0(X)/C_0({x_0})$? They are precisely elements generated by the $0$-simplices $sigma_x : Delta^0to {x}subseteq X$ with $xneq x_0$. However for any such $x$ there is a path $gamma$ from $x_0$ to $x$. Now the ususal boundary of the corresponding simplex $sigma_gamma$ is $sigma_x-sigma_{x_0}$ but here $sigma_{x_0}$ gets ignored so the boundary is just $sigma_x$. In particular $[sigma_x]=0$ in $H_0(X,x_0)$, so $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  As you already seem to know that $H_0(X)congmathbb Z$ for a path connected space $X$ and the standard argument for that is geometric in nature i will geometrically explain why $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.



                  Recall that $H_n(X,A)$ is the homology of the chain complex
                  $$...to C_{n+1}(X)/C_{n+1}(A)to C_n(X)/C_n(A)to C_{n-1}(X)/C_{n-1}(A)to ...$$



                  where $C_n(X)$ is a free abelian group with a basis given by all the $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ and boundary operator induced by the usual boundary operator.



                  There is a more geometric description of this relative complex:



                  One can think of $C_n(X)/C_n(A)$ as a free abelian group with a basis given by all $n$-simplices $Delta^nto X$ whose image does not lie entirely in $A$ and with this interpretation applying the boundary operator is just applying the ususal boundary operator and then forgetting all simplices which lie entirely in $A$. We will now use this interpretation:



                  Let $X$ be a path connected space and $x_0in X$. What are the cycles in $C_0(X)/C_0({x_0})$? They are precisely elements generated by the $0$-simplices $sigma_x : Delta^0to {x}subseteq X$ with $xneq x_0$. However for any such $x$ there is a path $gamma$ from $x_0$ to $x$. Now the ususal boundary of the corresponding simplex $sigma_gamma$ is $sigma_x-sigma_{x_0}$ but here $sigma_{x_0}$ gets ignored so the boundary is just $sigma_x$. In particular $[sigma_x]=0$ in $H_0(X,x_0)$, so $H_0(X,x_0)=0$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited 16 hours ago

























                  answered 19 hours ago









                  triitrii

                  2385




                  2385






























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