$intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ implies $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ ...
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$intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Differences between $-Delta: H_0^1(Omega)to H^{-1}(Omega)$ and $-Delta: H^2(Omega)cap H_0^1(Omega)to L^2(Omega)$Proving $umapsto |u|^2u$ is Lipschitz on bounded subsets of $H^2(Omega)cap H_0^1(Omega).$$H_0^1(Omega)$ with $(u,v)_{H_0^1} = intnabla u cdot nabla v$$forall gin L^2(Omega)$ exists $g_nin H_0^1(Omega)$ and $epsilon>0$ s.t $g_n(x)to g(x),,a.e$ and $|g_n(x)|leq |g(x)|+epsilon$Weak formulation of a nonlinear problem with test functions in a dense subspace of $H_0^1$The unique extension by continuity of a bounded linear functional from a dense subspace to the whole spaceConvergence in $L^p_{operatorname{ loc}}(Omega)$ for some $pge1$ implies convergence in $L^q_{operatorname{ loc}}(Omega)$ for all $q ge 1$$f in H^1_0(Omega)$ , $g in W^{1,infty}_{loc} Rightarrow fg in H_0^1$?Continuity of the convex functional $F(v)=intlimits_{Omega}{e^udx}$ over $H_0^1(Omega)$ and $L^2(Omega)$A sequence $f_k:Omegarightarrow mathbb R$ such that $int f_k=0 quad forall kin mathbb N $ and $limlimits_{ktoinfty} f_k equiv1$.
$begingroup$
Let $d=3$ and $Omegasubset mathbb R^d$ is a bounded Lipschitz domain and $u$ is a measurable function.
A sufficient condition for the integral $intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ is that $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ which follows from Holder's inequality and the (continuous) embedding $H^1(Omega)hookrightarrow L^6(Omega)$.
Question: Is the opposite true, i.e is it true that
$$intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$ implies $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ or at least $uin L^1(Omega)$ ?
My thoughts: It is easy to see that $uin L^1_{loc}(Omega)$ by taking $v$ to be smooth cut-off functions equal to $1$ in compact subsets of $Omega$ and $0$ in a neighborhood of the boundary $partial Omega$.
The motivation for this question is the "correct" weak formulation of a nonlinear problem - whether to formulate it as $(1)$ or as $(2)$:
$(1)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $f(u)in L^{6/5}(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
or
$(2)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
where $a(.,.)$ is a bilinear form and $f(.)$ is in general a nonlinear function. If the answer to my question is affirmative then both formulations are equivalent.
Note that $(2)$ is less restrictive, because the set in which we search for a solution is bigger, so it might be easier to find such.
pde lebesgue-integral sobolev-spaces lp-spaces
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $d=3$ and $Omegasubset mathbb R^d$ is a bounded Lipschitz domain and $u$ is a measurable function.
A sufficient condition for the integral $intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ is that $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ which follows from Holder's inequality and the (continuous) embedding $H^1(Omega)hookrightarrow L^6(Omega)$.
Question: Is the opposite true, i.e is it true that
$$intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$ implies $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ or at least $uin L^1(Omega)$ ?
My thoughts: It is easy to see that $uin L^1_{loc}(Omega)$ by taking $v$ to be smooth cut-off functions equal to $1$ in compact subsets of $Omega$ and $0$ in a neighborhood of the boundary $partial Omega$.
The motivation for this question is the "correct" weak formulation of a nonlinear problem - whether to formulate it as $(1)$ or as $(2)$:
$(1)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $f(u)in L^{6/5}(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
or
$(2)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
where $a(.,.)$ is a bilinear form and $f(.)$ is in general a nonlinear function. If the answer to my question is affirmative then both formulations are equivalent.
Note that $(2)$ is less restrictive, because the set in which we search for a solution is bigger, so it might be easier to find such.
pde lebesgue-integral sobolev-spaces lp-spaces
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@Tomás I reposted the question in MathOverflow here mathoverflow.net/questions/227892/… and I have an answer. I just can not understand how the important inequality in the comment is derived.
$endgroup$
– Svetoslav
Jan 9 '16 at 19:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $d=3$ and $Omegasubset mathbb R^d$ is a bounded Lipschitz domain and $u$ is a measurable function.
A sufficient condition for the integral $intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ is that $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ which follows from Holder's inequality and the (continuous) embedding $H^1(Omega)hookrightarrow L^6(Omega)$.
Question: Is the opposite true, i.e is it true that
$$intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$ implies $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ or at least $uin L^1(Omega)$ ?
My thoughts: It is easy to see that $uin L^1_{loc}(Omega)$ by taking $v$ to be smooth cut-off functions equal to $1$ in compact subsets of $Omega$ and $0$ in a neighborhood of the boundary $partial Omega$.
The motivation for this question is the "correct" weak formulation of a nonlinear problem - whether to formulate it as $(1)$ or as $(2)$:
$(1)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $f(u)in L^{6/5}(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
or
$(2)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
where $a(.,.)$ is a bilinear form and $f(.)$ is in general a nonlinear function. If the answer to my question is affirmative then both formulations are equivalent.
Note that $(2)$ is less restrictive, because the set in which we search for a solution is bigger, so it might be easier to find such.
pde lebesgue-integral sobolev-spaces lp-spaces
$endgroup$
Let $d=3$ and $Omegasubset mathbb R^d$ is a bounded Lipschitz domain and $u$ is a measurable function.
A sufficient condition for the integral $intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ is that $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ which follows from Holder's inequality and the (continuous) embedding $H^1(Omega)hookrightarrow L^6(Omega)$.
Question: Is the opposite true, i.e is it true that
$$intlimits_{Omega}{uvdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$ implies $uin L^{6/5}(Omega)$ or at least $uin L^1(Omega)$ ?
My thoughts: It is easy to see that $uin L^1_{loc}(Omega)$ by taking $v$ to be smooth cut-off functions equal to $1$ in compact subsets of $Omega$ and $0$ in a neighborhood of the boundary $partial Omega$.
The motivation for this question is the "correct" weak formulation of a nonlinear problem - whether to formulate it as $(1)$ or as $(2)$:
$(1)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $f(u)in L^{6/5}(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
or
$(2)$ Find $uin H_0^1(Omega)$ such that $intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}<infty,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$ and
$$a(u,v)+intlimits_{Omega}{f(u)vdx}=0,forall vin H_0^1(Omega)$$
where $a(.,.)$ is a bilinear form and $f(.)$ is in general a nonlinear function. If the answer to my question is affirmative then both formulations are equivalent.
Note that $(2)$ is less restrictive, because the set in which we search for a solution is bigger, so it might be easier to find such.
pde lebesgue-integral sobolev-spaces lp-spaces
pde lebesgue-integral sobolev-spaces lp-spaces
edited Mar 23 at 12:57
Svetoslav
asked Jan 1 '16 at 15:24
SvetoslavSvetoslav
4,5872828
4,5872828
$begingroup$
@Tomás I reposted the question in MathOverflow here mathoverflow.net/questions/227892/… and I have an answer. I just can not understand how the important inequality in the comment is derived.
$endgroup$
– Svetoslav
Jan 9 '16 at 19:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
@Tomás I reposted the question in MathOverflow here mathoverflow.net/questions/227892/… and I have an answer. I just can not understand how the important inequality in the comment is derived.
$endgroup$
– Svetoslav
Jan 9 '16 at 19:28
$begingroup$
@Tomás I reposted the question in MathOverflow here mathoverflow.net/questions/227892/… and I have an answer. I just can not understand how the important inequality in the comment is derived.
$endgroup$
– Svetoslav
Jan 9 '16 at 19:28
$begingroup$
@Tomás I reposted the question in MathOverflow here mathoverflow.net/questions/227892/… and I have an answer. I just can not understand how the important inequality in the comment is derived.
$endgroup$
– Svetoslav
Jan 9 '16 at 19:28
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
@Tomás I reposted the question in MathOverflow here mathoverflow.net/questions/227892/… and I have an answer. I just can not understand how the important inequality in the comment is derived.
$endgroup$
– Svetoslav
Jan 9 '16 at 19:28