Unique factorization of dihedral groupDihedral group of order 8Dihedral group and cyclic group...

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Unique factorization of dihedral group


Dihedral group of order 8Dihedral group and cyclic group theorem.Dihedral group as a direct productInfinite Dihedral Group.Question about Quaternion group $Q_8$ and Dihedral group $D_8$Dihedral group is supersolvableWhat finite groups have unique cyclic subgroups?Showing that the dihedral group $D_n = {a^i b^j mid 0 <i <6, 0 <j< 2 }$ quotiented by $langle a^k rangle$ is isomorphic to $D_k$Help with understanding proof: every group of order 6 is cclic or dihedral.Compute cosets in the dihedral group













4












$begingroup$


My goal is to prove the following about the dihedral group $D_{2n}$:




Prove that every element in $D_{2n}$ has a unique factorization of the form $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




I know that the cyclic subgroup $left langle a right rangle$ has order $n.$ From this, I know that this has index $2.$ Thus $D_{2n}$ is the disjoint union
$$left langle a right rangle cup left langle a right rangle b.$$



After this, I am pretty stuck. Am I headed in the right direction? What would be the correct way to finish this proof?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you already know that $D_{2n}$ is a disjoint union of $langle arangle$ and $langle arangle b$, then why don't you already know that every element can be written as $a^ib^j$ with $j=0$ or $1$, $0leq ilt n$? And once you know there is at least one such factorization, what is the difficulty in proving uniqueness?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    So, I gather from what you are saying that the proof is almost complete. I just need to show it is unique?
    $endgroup$
    – MathIsLife12
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Well, you also need to realize why you've already proven the existence of the factorization...
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday
















4












$begingroup$


My goal is to prove the following about the dihedral group $D_{2n}$:




Prove that every element in $D_{2n}$ has a unique factorization of the form $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




I know that the cyclic subgroup $left langle a right rangle$ has order $n.$ From this, I know that this has index $2.$ Thus $D_{2n}$ is the disjoint union
$$left langle a right rangle cup left langle a right rangle b.$$



After this, I am pretty stuck. Am I headed in the right direction? What would be the correct way to finish this proof?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you already know that $D_{2n}$ is a disjoint union of $langle arangle$ and $langle arangle b$, then why don't you already know that every element can be written as $a^ib^j$ with $j=0$ or $1$, $0leq ilt n$? And once you know there is at least one such factorization, what is the difficulty in proving uniqueness?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    So, I gather from what you are saying that the proof is almost complete. I just need to show it is unique?
    $endgroup$
    – MathIsLife12
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Well, you also need to realize why you've already proven the existence of the factorization...
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


My goal is to prove the following about the dihedral group $D_{2n}$:




Prove that every element in $D_{2n}$ has a unique factorization of the form $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




I know that the cyclic subgroup $left langle a right rangle$ has order $n.$ From this, I know that this has index $2.$ Thus $D_{2n}$ is the disjoint union
$$left langle a right rangle cup left langle a right rangle b.$$



After this, I am pretty stuck. Am I headed in the right direction? What would be the correct way to finish this proof?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




My goal is to prove the following about the dihedral group $D_{2n}$:




Prove that every element in $D_{2n}$ has a unique factorization of the form $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




I know that the cyclic subgroup $left langle a right rangle$ has order $n.$ From this, I know that this has index $2.$ Thus $D_{2n}$ is the disjoint union
$$left langle a right rangle cup left langle a right rangle b.$$



After this, I am pretty stuck. Am I headed in the right direction? What would be the correct way to finish this proof?



Thanks in advance!







abstract-algebra group-theory dihedral-groups






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 8 hours ago









Shaun

9,338113684




9,338113684










asked yesterday









MathIsLife12MathIsLife12

613211




613211








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you already know that $D_{2n}$ is a disjoint union of $langle arangle$ and $langle arangle b$, then why don't you already know that every element can be written as $a^ib^j$ with $j=0$ or $1$, $0leq ilt n$? And once you know there is at least one such factorization, what is the difficulty in proving uniqueness?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    So, I gather from what you are saying that the proof is almost complete. I just need to show it is unique?
    $endgroup$
    – MathIsLife12
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Well, you also need to realize why you've already proven the existence of the factorization...
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you already know that $D_{2n}$ is a disjoint union of $langle arangle$ and $langle arangle b$, then why don't you already know that every element can be written as $a^ib^j$ with $j=0$ or $1$, $0leq ilt n$? And once you know there is at least one such factorization, what is the difficulty in proving uniqueness?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    So, I gather from what you are saying that the proof is almost complete. I just need to show it is unique?
    $endgroup$
    – MathIsLife12
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Well, you also need to realize why you've already proven the existence of the factorization...
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    yesterday








1




1




$begingroup$
If you already know that $D_{2n}$ is a disjoint union of $langle arangle$ and $langle arangle b$, then why don't you already know that every element can be written as $a^ib^j$ with $j=0$ or $1$, $0leq ilt n$? And once you know there is at least one such factorization, what is the difficulty in proving uniqueness?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
yesterday




$begingroup$
If you already know that $D_{2n}$ is a disjoint union of $langle arangle$ and $langle arangle b$, then why don't you already know that every element can be written as $a^ib^j$ with $j=0$ or $1$, $0leq ilt n$? And once you know there is at least one such factorization, what is the difficulty in proving uniqueness?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
yesterday












$begingroup$
So, I gather from what you are saying that the proof is almost complete. I just need to show it is unique?
$endgroup$
– MathIsLife12
yesterday




$begingroup$
So, I gather from what you are saying that the proof is almost complete. I just need to show it is unique?
$endgroup$
– MathIsLife12
yesterday




2




2




$begingroup$
Well, you also need to realize why you've already proven the existence of the factorization...
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
yesterday




$begingroup$
Well, you also need to realize why you've already proven the existence of the factorization...
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
yesterday










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

You want products of the form:




$a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




there are $2n$ of these: $a^0,a^1,ldots,a^{n-1}$ and $a^0b,a^1b,ldots,a^{n-1}b$. These $2n$ products each give you an element of $D_{2n}$ so as long as they all represent distinct elements, the factorization is unique.



The $n$ products of the form $a^i$ are distinct because $|a| = n$. Likewise, the elements $a^ib$ are distinct because $a^{i_1}b = a^{i_2}b$ implies $a^{i_1} = a^{i_2}$ by cancellation, and then $i_1 = i_2$ since $0leq i leq n$. Finally, there's no $a^{i_1} b = a^{i_2}$ because that would imply that $b in left<aright>$.



That means your $2n$ products are in 1-to-1 correspondence with the elements of $D_{2n}$; each element of $D_{2n}$ has a unique representative as one of the products.






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

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    active

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    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    You want products of the form:




    $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




    there are $2n$ of these: $a^0,a^1,ldots,a^{n-1}$ and $a^0b,a^1b,ldots,a^{n-1}b$. These $2n$ products each give you an element of $D_{2n}$ so as long as they all represent distinct elements, the factorization is unique.



    The $n$ products of the form $a^i$ are distinct because $|a| = n$. Likewise, the elements $a^ib$ are distinct because $a^{i_1}b = a^{i_2}b$ implies $a^{i_1} = a^{i_2}$ by cancellation, and then $i_1 = i_2$ since $0leq i leq n$. Finally, there's no $a^{i_1} b = a^{i_2}$ because that would imply that $b in left<aright>$.



    That means your $2n$ products are in 1-to-1 correspondence with the elements of $D_{2n}$; each element of $D_{2n}$ has a unique representative as one of the products.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      5












      $begingroup$

      You want products of the form:




      $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




      there are $2n$ of these: $a^0,a^1,ldots,a^{n-1}$ and $a^0b,a^1b,ldots,a^{n-1}b$. These $2n$ products each give you an element of $D_{2n}$ so as long as they all represent distinct elements, the factorization is unique.



      The $n$ products of the form $a^i$ are distinct because $|a| = n$. Likewise, the elements $a^ib$ are distinct because $a^{i_1}b = a^{i_2}b$ implies $a^{i_1} = a^{i_2}$ by cancellation, and then $i_1 = i_2$ since $0leq i leq n$. Finally, there's no $a^{i_1} b = a^{i_2}$ because that would imply that $b in left<aright>$.



      That means your $2n$ products are in 1-to-1 correspondence with the elements of $D_{2n}$; each element of $D_{2n}$ has a unique representative as one of the products.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        You want products of the form:




        $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




        there are $2n$ of these: $a^0,a^1,ldots,a^{n-1}$ and $a^0b,a^1b,ldots,a^{n-1}b$. These $2n$ products each give you an element of $D_{2n}$ so as long as they all represent distinct elements, the factorization is unique.



        The $n$ products of the form $a^i$ are distinct because $|a| = n$. Likewise, the elements $a^ib$ are distinct because $a^{i_1}b = a^{i_2}b$ implies $a^{i_1} = a^{i_2}$ by cancellation, and then $i_1 = i_2$ since $0leq i leq n$. Finally, there's no $a^{i_1} b = a^{i_2}$ because that would imply that $b in left<aright>$.



        That means your $2n$ products are in 1-to-1 correspondence with the elements of $D_{2n}$; each element of $D_{2n}$ has a unique representative as one of the products.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You want products of the form:




        $a^{i}b^{j}$, where $0 leq i < n$ and $j=0$ or $1.$




        there are $2n$ of these: $a^0,a^1,ldots,a^{n-1}$ and $a^0b,a^1b,ldots,a^{n-1}b$. These $2n$ products each give you an element of $D_{2n}$ so as long as they all represent distinct elements, the factorization is unique.



        The $n$ products of the form $a^i$ are distinct because $|a| = n$. Likewise, the elements $a^ib$ are distinct because $a^{i_1}b = a^{i_2}b$ implies $a^{i_1} = a^{i_2}$ by cancellation, and then $i_1 = i_2$ since $0leq i leq n$. Finally, there's no $a^{i_1} b = a^{i_2}$ because that would imply that $b in left<aright>$.



        That means your $2n$ products are in 1-to-1 correspondence with the elements of $D_{2n}$; each element of $D_{2n}$ has a unique representative as one of the products.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered yesterday









        orlandpmorlandpm

        4,70921838




        4,70921838






























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