Lebesgue points and characteristic functionA question about the Lebesgue-Stieltjes measure of the Cantor...
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Lebesgue points and characteristic function
A question about the Lebesgue-Stieltjes measure of the Cantor functionEssentially continuous a.e. characteristic functionIn what sense is Lebesgue integral the “most general”?Averages of a FunctionWhy is Lebesgue-Stieltjes a generalization of Riemann-Stieltjes? Moreover, is there an example where Lebesgue-Stieltjes is usefulLebesgue-integrable function particular characteristicMotivation/Intuition behind Lorentz spacesLebesgue Integral over Unbounded DomainDefinition of simple function2-dimensional Lebesgue-Stieltjes measure (Bivariate Density to Distribution Function)
$begingroup$
I'm having troubles understanding a statement in paper.
Basicly we have a function $u$ for which we know $0$ is a Lebesgue point. Moreover, we know that $u(0) > v$. Now, define the function
$$
chi(u,v)=
begin{cases}
1 & {rm if} 0 < v leq u, \
0 & otherwise,
end{cases}
$$
In particular we see that: $chi(u(0),v) = 1$. The claim is that $0$ is a Lebesgue point for $chi(u(cdot), v)$ with value $1$.
I tried to use the definition, but I can't see why this should be true (although I can imagine why intuitively).
Feel free to ask any clarification! Thank you very much!
analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm having troubles understanding a statement in paper.
Basicly we have a function $u$ for which we know $0$ is a Lebesgue point. Moreover, we know that $u(0) > v$. Now, define the function
$$
chi(u,v)=
begin{cases}
1 & {rm if} 0 < v leq u, \
0 & otherwise,
end{cases}
$$
In particular we see that: $chi(u(0),v) = 1$. The claim is that $0$ is a Lebesgue point for $chi(u(cdot), v)$ with value $1$.
I tried to use the definition, but I can't see why this should be true (although I can imagine why intuitively).
Feel free to ask any clarification! Thank you very much!
analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm having troubles understanding a statement in paper.
Basicly we have a function $u$ for which we know $0$ is a Lebesgue point. Moreover, we know that $u(0) > v$. Now, define the function
$$
chi(u,v)=
begin{cases}
1 & {rm if} 0 < v leq u, \
0 & otherwise,
end{cases}
$$
In particular we see that: $chi(u(0),v) = 1$. The claim is that $0$ is a Lebesgue point for $chi(u(cdot), v)$ with value $1$.
I tried to use the definition, but I can't see why this should be true (although I can imagine why intuitively).
Feel free to ask any clarification! Thank you very much!
analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
I'm having troubles understanding a statement in paper.
Basicly we have a function $u$ for which we know $0$ is a Lebesgue point. Moreover, we know that $u(0) > v$. Now, define the function
$$
chi(u,v)=
begin{cases}
1 & {rm if} 0 < v leq u, \
0 & otherwise,
end{cases}
$$
In particular we see that: $chi(u(0),v) = 1$. The claim is that $0$ is a Lebesgue point for $chi(u(cdot), v)$ with value $1$.
I tried to use the definition, but I can't see why this should be true (although I can imagine why intuitively).
Feel free to ask any clarification! Thank you very much!
analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure
asked 15 hours ago
Lorenzo LiveraniLorenzo Liverani
243
243
add a comment |
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