Sequence of integral functions convergesConvergence of sequence of functionsProve that there is a subsequence...
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Sequence of integral functions converges
Convergence of sequence of functionsProve that there is a subsequence of functions which converges uniformlyHow to prove a sequence of a function converges uniformly?Sequence of differentiable functions that converges pointwise.Converging sequence of integrals for uniformly bounded functionsIs a sequence of decreasing functions in $C^0$ pointwise convergent to $0$ implies the sequence is equicontinuous?Real Analysis - Convergence of a FunctionShowing there is a subsequence that uniformly converges?Show that the sequence of functions converges point-wise but no uniformlyEquicontinuous and uniform norm examples
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$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.
I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.
I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30
$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.
I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.
I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?
real-analysis
real-analysis
asked Mar 13 at 6:26
Fluffy SkyeFluffy Skye
31919
31919
$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30
$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30
$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31
$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30
$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30
$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31
$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38
$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41
1
$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44
$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38
$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41
1
$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44
$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38
$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41
1
$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44
$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].
$endgroup$
Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].
answered Mar 13 at 6:35
Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy
68.9k53169
68.9k53169
1
$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38
$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41
1
$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44
$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38
$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41
1
$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44
$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51
1
1
$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37
$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38
$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38
$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41
$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41
1
1
$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44
$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44
$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51
$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30
$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31