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Sequence of integral functions converges


Convergence of sequence of functionsProve that there is a subsequence of functions which converges uniformlyHow to prove a sequence of a function converges uniformly?Sequence of differentiable functions that converges pointwise.Converging sequence of integrals for uniformly bounded functionsIs a sequence of decreasing functions in $C^0$ pointwise convergent to $0$ implies the sequence is equicontinuous?Real Analysis - Convergence of a FunctionShowing there is a subsequence that uniformly converges?Show that the sequence of functions converges point-wise but no uniformlyEquicontinuous and uniform norm examples













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$begingroup$


$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.



I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Uniform implies pointwise... no?
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Roberson
    Mar 13 at 6:30










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:31
















1












$begingroup$


$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.



I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Uniform implies pointwise... no?
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Roberson
    Mar 13 at 6:30










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:31














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.



I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




$forall ngeq 1$, Let $f_n:[0,1]to mathbb{R},forall xin [0,1],|f_n(x)|leq 1+frac{n}{1+n^2x^2}$. Define $F_n(x)=int_0^xf_n(t) dt$. Show that there is a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges pointwise on $[0,1]$.



I have already shown $forall ain (0,1)$, there exists a subsequence of ${F_n}_{ngeq 1}$ that converges uniformly on $[a,1]$. What should I do next?







real-analysis






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 13 at 6:26









Fluffy SkyeFluffy Skye

31919




31919












  • $begingroup$
    Uniform implies pointwise... no?
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Roberson
    Mar 13 at 6:30










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:31


















  • $begingroup$
    Uniform implies pointwise... no?
    $endgroup$
    – Sean Roberson
    Mar 13 at 6:30










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:31
















$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30




$begingroup$
Uniform implies pointwise... no?
$endgroup$
– Sean Roberson
Mar 13 at 6:30












$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31




$begingroup$
Yes, but it's on $[a,1]$ not $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:31










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:37










  • $begingroup$
    @FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:38










  • $begingroup$
    But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:44












  • $begingroup$
    So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:51













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:37










  • $begingroup$
    @FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:38










  • $begingroup$
    But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:44












  • $begingroup$
    So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:51


















1












$begingroup$

Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:37










  • $begingroup$
    @FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:38










  • $begingroup$
    But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:44












  • $begingroup$
    So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:51
















1












1








1





$begingroup$

Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Use a diagonal argument. For each $n$ you have a subsequence that converges uniformly on $(frac 1 n ,1)$ and so you can construct a diagonal subsequence which converges at every point. [Note that $F_n(0)=0$].







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 13 at 6:35









Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

68.9k53169




68.9k53169








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:37










  • $begingroup$
    @FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:38










  • $begingroup$
    But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:44












  • $begingroup$
    So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:51
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:37










  • $begingroup$
    @FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:38










  • $begingroup$
    But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:41






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Mar 13 at 6:44












  • $begingroup$
    So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
    $endgroup$
    – Fluffy Skye
    Mar 13 at 6:51










1




1




$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37




$begingroup$
Umm, so I first pick a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/2,1]$, and pick from it a subsequence that converges uniformly on $[1/3,1]$ and so on. Then pick the diagonal element of all these sequences?
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:37












$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38




$begingroup$
@FluffySkye Exactly. You got the idea.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:38












$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41




$begingroup$
But I don't understand how we end up with poinwise convergence though. Is it because $forall xin (0,1]$, far far along down our diagonal sequence it will converge, but 0 is not ok? I don't quite get it.
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:41




1




1




$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44






$begingroup$
A given $x>0$ lies in $(a,1)$ for some $a in (0,1)$ so we get pointwise convergence but you don't get uniform convergence because no single $a$ works for all $x$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Mar 13 at 6:44














$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51






$begingroup$
So it's like our diagonal sequence uniformly converges on $[a,1],forall ain (0,1)$, just can't reach $[0,1]$ right? And that is because we only consider the supreme distance between $F_n$ and it's poinwise limit $F$ on $[a,1]$ but never $[0,1]$, so we can't find an $n_epsilon$ such that the suprem distance on $[0,1]$ is less than $epsilon$
$endgroup$
– Fluffy Skye
Mar 13 at 6:51




















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