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Why is this Weil divisor not a Cartier divisor


Divisor class group on blowup of nodal surfaceWhat fails in the Cartier <-> Weil divisor correspondence in the singular case?Why aren't those Cartier Divisors equivalent?Cartier divisors of schemesWeil divisors fail over singular varietiesSupport of an effective Cartier vs Weil divisorDefinition of pullback of a Weil divisor on an abelian variety?Multiplicity of Cartier divisor on locally noetherian scheme is only non-zero at generic pointWhy is this not a cartier divisor?Extending a Cartier divisor on a curve to singular points?













1












$begingroup$


I'm reading "Introduction to toric varieties" by "William Fulton", here is an example in page 61 illustrating the difference between Weil divisors and Cartier divisors. Here my question is only about these divisors(not about toric variety), so I change the form such that it doesn't involve the toric variety. I know only basic definition of divisors so correct me if I write something wrong.



Example: In the cone $XZ-Y^2$, the line $X=Y=0$ is a Weil divisor $D$. Then $D$ is not a Cartier divisor but $2D$ is, and $2D$ is a principal divisor.



What is the function that give the principal divisor $2D$? Is it just $X^2$? Then why function $X$ does not give a principal divisor $D$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think it's the function $X$ that gives the divisor $2D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Hemelsoet
    Mar 13 at 9:16
















1












$begingroup$


I'm reading "Introduction to toric varieties" by "William Fulton", here is an example in page 61 illustrating the difference between Weil divisors and Cartier divisors. Here my question is only about these divisors(not about toric variety), so I change the form such that it doesn't involve the toric variety. I know only basic definition of divisors so correct me if I write something wrong.



Example: In the cone $XZ-Y^2$, the line $X=Y=0$ is a Weil divisor $D$. Then $D$ is not a Cartier divisor but $2D$ is, and $2D$ is a principal divisor.



What is the function that give the principal divisor $2D$? Is it just $X^2$? Then why function $X$ does not give a principal divisor $D$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think it's the function $X$ that gives the divisor $2D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Hemelsoet
    Mar 13 at 9:16














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I'm reading "Introduction to toric varieties" by "William Fulton", here is an example in page 61 illustrating the difference between Weil divisors and Cartier divisors. Here my question is only about these divisors(not about toric variety), so I change the form such that it doesn't involve the toric variety. I know only basic definition of divisors so correct me if I write something wrong.



Example: In the cone $XZ-Y^2$, the line $X=Y=0$ is a Weil divisor $D$. Then $D$ is not a Cartier divisor but $2D$ is, and $2D$ is a principal divisor.



What is the function that give the principal divisor $2D$? Is it just $X^2$? Then why function $X$ does not give a principal divisor $D$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm reading "Introduction to toric varieties" by "William Fulton", here is an example in page 61 illustrating the difference between Weil divisors and Cartier divisors. Here my question is only about these divisors(not about toric variety), so I change the form such that it doesn't involve the toric variety. I know only basic definition of divisors so correct me if I write something wrong.



Example: In the cone $XZ-Y^2$, the line $X=Y=0$ is a Weil divisor $D$. Then $D$ is not a Cartier divisor but $2D$ is, and $2D$ is a principal divisor.



What is the function that give the principal divisor $2D$? Is it just $X^2$? Then why function $X$ does not give a principal divisor $D$?







algebraic-geometry divisors-algebraic-geometry






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 13 at 6:22









JialeJiale

585




585








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think it's the function $X$ that gives the divisor $2D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Hemelsoet
    Mar 13 at 9:16














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think it's the function $X$ that gives the divisor $2D$.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Hemelsoet
    Mar 13 at 9:16








2




2




$begingroup$
I think it's the function $X$ that gives the divisor $2D$.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Hemelsoet
Mar 13 at 9:16




$begingroup$
I think it's the function $X$ that gives the divisor $2D$.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Hemelsoet
Mar 13 at 9:16










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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0












$begingroup$

I think I get it now. Is this correct?



The local ring $mathbb{C}[X,Y,Z]_{(X,Y)}$ has a maximal ideal $(X,Y)$, it is generated by $Y$ because $X=Y(Y/Z)$, then $X$ has valuation $2$ at $D$. Function $Y$ has valuation $1$ at $D$ but $div(Y)=D+D'$ where $D'$ is the line $Y=Z=0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    active

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    0












    $begingroup$

    I think I get it now. Is this correct?



    The local ring $mathbb{C}[X,Y,Z]_{(X,Y)}$ has a maximal ideal $(X,Y)$, it is generated by $Y$ because $X=Y(Y/Z)$, then $X$ has valuation $2$ at $D$. Function $Y$ has valuation $1$ at $D$ but $div(Y)=D+D'$ where $D'$ is the line $Y=Z=0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      I think I get it now. Is this correct?



      The local ring $mathbb{C}[X,Y,Z]_{(X,Y)}$ has a maximal ideal $(X,Y)$, it is generated by $Y$ because $X=Y(Y/Z)$, then $X$ has valuation $2$ at $D$. Function $Y$ has valuation $1$ at $D$ but $div(Y)=D+D'$ where $D'$ is the line $Y=Z=0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        I think I get it now. Is this correct?



        The local ring $mathbb{C}[X,Y,Z]_{(X,Y)}$ has a maximal ideal $(X,Y)$, it is generated by $Y$ because $X=Y(Y/Z)$, then $X$ has valuation $2$ at $D$. Function $Y$ has valuation $1$ at $D$ but $div(Y)=D+D'$ where $D'$ is the line $Y=Z=0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I think I get it now. Is this correct?



        The local ring $mathbb{C}[X,Y,Z]_{(X,Y)}$ has a maximal ideal $(X,Y)$, it is generated by $Y$ because $X=Y(Y/Z)$, then $X$ has valuation $2$ at $D$. Function $Y$ has valuation $1$ at $D$ but $div(Y)=D+D'$ where $D'$ is the line $Y=Z=0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 13 at 15:36









        JialeJiale

        585




        585






























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