If $aH=bH implies Ha=Hb$ for a subgroup H having *finite index*, then $gH=Hg$ for all $g in G$?$aHa^{-1}...

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If $aH=bH implies Ha=Hb$ for a subgroup H having *finite index*, then $gH=Hg$ for all $g in G$?


$aHa^{-1} subset H$ without $aHa^{-1} = H$If $aH=bH$ implies $Ha=Hb$ then $aHa^{-1}=H$ for all $ain G$.what is exactly the index of a subgroup?$H$ has finite index $implies aH$ has finite indexIndex of a subgroup is finite iff two given indexes are finiteProve that if $H$ is a subgroup of index $2$ in a finite group $G$, then $gH = Hg forall g in G$.Prove $g^2 = e$ if there is a subgroup of index 2 that does not contain $g$ for every $g in G$.If $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$, prove $g^{n} in H$Subgroups of finite index have finitely many conjugatesProblem with proof of $H cap K $ is of finite index if $ H,K$ are finite index subgroupsIf $H$ is subgroup $G$ of index 2 then $H$ is normal subgroup of $G$Subgroup of Finite Index













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$begingroup$


Problem 2.5.9 of Herstein's Topics in Algebra asks us to prove that if $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ such that $Ha not = Hb implies aH not = bH$, then $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $g in G$, which is equivalent to $gH subset Hg.$ Suppose I have proved this (this result is of course true). I want to prove more, namely that, under the same premise, $gH = Hg$ for all $g in G$. I think I can prove it if I further assume that the index of $H$ in $G$ is finite. Is this true? And if so, is this additional hypothesis necessary as well as sufficient? I.e. can you give an example of a subgroup $H$ of infinite index such that $aH subset Ha$ but not vice versa? Thanks in advance. [DISCLAIMER: I am not yet familiar with normal subgroups]



Here's my attempt at a proof:



Suppose that $|G:H|=n in mathbb{N}$ and that $aH subset Ha$ for all $a in G$. Now, suppose that there is an element $x$ such that $x in Ha$ but $x not in aH$. Then $x$ must be contained in a different left coset, say $bH$, because the left cosets form a partition of $G$. Then, by our hypothesis, $x in Hb$, which implies $Hb = Ha$, because the right cosets form a partition of $G$ as well. So far we have shown that $aH, bH subset Ha=Hb$. But now we can prove that there are more left cosets than right ones! In fact, the remaining $n-1$ right cosets distinct from $Ha$ must contain at least one left coset, by our hypothesis, but $Ha$ contains two left cosets. So there are at least $n+1$ left cosets, a contradiction. Therefore $aH=Ha. square$










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Compare with this duplicate and its answers.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:00








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde The answers in your linked question only prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$ and not equality. So I don't think they address the OP’s problem.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Claudius This is not true. They prove equality, e.g., see Deven's answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:18








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Yes, Deven claims to have shown $gHg^{-1} =H$. But what he really did was to prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$. At least, I don't see how he proved the other inclusion.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:20
















1












$begingroup$


Problem 2.5.9 of Herstein's Topics in Algebra asks us to prove that if $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ such that $Ha not = Hb implies aH not = bH$, then $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $g in G$, which is equivalent to $gH subset Hg.$ Suppose I have proved this (this result is of course true). I want to prove more, namely that, under the same premise, $gH = Hg$ for all $g in G$. I think I can prove it if I further assume that the index of $H$ in $G$ is finite. Is this true? And if so, is this additional hypothesis necessary as well as sufficient? I.e. can you give an example of a subgroup $H$ of infinite index such that $aH subset Ha$ but not vice versa? Thanks in advance. [DISCLAIMER: I am not yet familiar with normal subgroups]



Here's my attempt at a proof:



Suppose that $|G:H|=n in mathbb{N}$ and that $aH subset Ha$ for all $a in G$. Now, suppose that there is an element $x$ such that $x in Ha$ but $x not in aH$. Then $x$ must be contained in a different left coset, say $bH$, because the left cosets form a partition of $G$. Then, by our hypothesis, $x in Hb$, which implies $Hb = Ha$, because the right cosets form a partition of $G$ as well. So far we have shown that $aH, bH subset Ha=Hb$. But now we can prove that there are more left cosets than right ones! In fact, the remaining $n-1$ right cosets distinct from $Ha$ must contain at least one left coset, by our hypothesis, but $Ha$ contains two left cosets. So there are at least $n+1$ left cosets, a contradiction. Therefore $aH=Ha. square$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Compare with this duplicate and its answers.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:00








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde The answers in your linked question only prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$ and not equality. So I don't think they address the OP’s problem.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Claudius This is not true. They prove equality, e.g., see Deven's answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:18








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Yes, Deven claims to have shown $gHg^{-1} =H$. But what he really did was to prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$. At least, I don't see how he proved the other inclusion.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:20














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


Problem 2.5.9 of Herstein's Topics in Algebra asks us to prove that if $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ such that $Ha not = Hb implies aH not = bH$, then $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $g in G$, which is equivalent to $gH subset Hg.$ Suppose I have proved this (this result is of course true). I want to prove more, namely that, under the same premise, $gH = Hg$ for all $g in G$. I think I can prove it if I further assume that the index of $H$ in $G$ is finite. Is this true? And if so, is this additional hypothesis necessary as well as sufficient? I.e. can you give an example of a subgroup $H$ of infinite index such that $aH subset Ha$ but not vice versa? Thanks in advance. [DISCLAIMER: I am not yet familiar with normal subgroups]



Here's my attempt at a proof:



Suppose that $|G:H|=n in mathbb{N}$ and that $aH subset Ha$ for all $a in G$. Now, suppose that there is an element $x$ such that $x in Ha$ but $x not in aH$. Then $x$ must be contained in a different left coset, say $bH$, because the left cosets form a partition of $G$. Then, by our hypothesis, $x in Hb$, which implies $Hb = Ha$, because the right cosets form a partition of $G$ as well. So far we have shown that $aH, bH subset Ha=Hb$. But now we can prove that there are more left cosets than right ones! In fact, the remaining $n-1$ right cosets distinct from $Ha$ must contain at least one left coset, by our hypothesis, but $Ha$ contains two left cosets. So there are at least $n+1$ left cosets, a contradiction. Therefore $aH=Ha. square$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Problem 2.5.9 of Herstein's Topics in Algebra asks us to prove that if $H$ is a subgroup of a group $G$ such that $Ha not = Hb implies aH not = bH$, then $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $g in G$, which is equivalent to $gH subset Hg.$ Suppose I have proved this (this result is of course true). I want to prove more, namely that, under the same premise, $gH = Hg$ for all $g in G$. I think I can prove it if I further assume that the index of $H$ in $G$ is finite. Is this true? And if so, is this additional hypothesis necessary as well as sufficient? I.e. can you give an example of a subgroup $H$ of infinite index such that $aH subset Ha$ but not vice versa? Thanks in advance. [DISCLAIMER: I am not yet familiar with normal subgroups]



Here's my attempt at a proof:



Suppose that $|G:H|=n in mathbb{N}$ and that $aH subset Ha$ for all $a in G$. Now, suppose that there is an element $x$ such that $x in Ha$ but $x not in aH$. Then $x$ must be contained in a different left coset, say $bH$, because the left cosets form a partition of $G$. Then, by our hypothesis, $x in Hb$, which implies $Hb = Ha$, because the right cosets form a partition of $G$ as well. So far we have shown that $aH, bH subset Ha=Hb$. But now we can prove that there are more left cosets than right ones! In fact, the remaining $n-1$ right cosets distinct from $Ha$ must contain at least one left coset, by our hypothesis, but $Ha$ contains two left cosets. So there are at least $n+1$ left cosets, a contradiction. Therefore $aH=Ha. square$







abstract-algebra group-theory normal-subgroups






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share|cite|improve this question










asked Mar 14 at 11:43









The FootprintThe Footprint

877




877












  • $begingroup$
    Compare with this duplicate and its answers.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:00








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde The answers in your linked question only prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$ and not equality. So I don't think they address the OP’s problem.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Claudius This is not true. They prove equality, e.g., see Deven's answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:18








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Yes, Deven claims to have shown $gHg^{-1} =H$. But what he really did was to prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$. At least, I don't see how he proved the other inclusion.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:20


















  • $begingroup$
    Compare with this duplicate and its answers.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:00








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde The answers in your linked question only prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$ and not equality. So I don't think they address the OP’s problem.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Claudius This is not true. They prove equality, e.g., see Deven's answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Mar 14 at 12:18








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @DietrichBurde Yes, Deven claims to have shown $gHg^{-1} =H$. But what he really did was to prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$. At least, I don't see how he proved the other inclusion.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:20
















$begingroup$
Compare with this duplicate and its answers.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 14 at 12:00






$begingroup$
Compare with this duplicate and its answers.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 14 at 12:00






2




2




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde The answers in your linked question only prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$ and not equality. So I don't think they address the OP’s problem.
$endgroup$
– Claudius
Mar 14 at 12:15




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde The answers in your linked question only prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$ and not equality. So I don't think they address the OP’s problem.
$endgroup$
– Claudius
Mar 14 at 12:15












$begingroup$
@Claudius This is not true. They prove equality, e.g., see Deven's answer.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 14 at 12:18






$begingroup$
@Claudius This is not true. They prove equality, e.g., see Deven's answer.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Mar 14 at 12:18






2




2




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde Yes, Deven claims to have shown $gHg^{-1} =H$. But what he really did was to prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$. At least, I don't see how he proved the other inclusion.
$endgroup$
– Claudius
Mar 14 at 12:20




$begingroup$
@DietrichBurde Yes, Deven claims to have shown $gHg^{-1} =H$. But what he really did was to prove $gHg^{-1} subset H$. At least, I don't see how he proved the other inclusion.
$endgroup$
– Claudius
Mar 14 at 12:20










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Your proof seems correct to me.



In fact, you can remove the finite index hypothesis. If $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $gin G$, then for each $gin G$ you also have
$$
H = g^{-1}(gHg^{-1})g subset g^{-1}Hg = g^{-1}H(g^{-1})^{-1} subset H,
$$

so we must have equality throughout, i. e. $H = g^{-1}Hg$ (for each $gin G$).



More generally, for any subgroup $H$ of $G$ the following holds: the set $N:= { gin G mid gHg^{-1}subset H}$ is a subgroup of $G$ if and only if $gHg^{-1} = H$ for all $gin N$. (In that case $N$ is the normalizer of $H$ in $G$.)






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That's brilliant, thank you. Now I feel stupid for not having come up with that immediately! But why would Herstein keep this result from the reader and only ask to prove one inclusion? And what about this thread math.stackexchange.com/questions/217601/… in which there seems to be a counterexample?
    $endgroup$
    – The Footprint
    Mar 14 at 12:36






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In the answer of Brian M. Scott the set ${gin Gmid gHg^{-1} subset H}$ is not stable under inversion, hence not a group. It is only closed under composition.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:40





















2












$begingroup$

You don't need any additional hypotheses. Multiplying both sides by $g^{-1}$ on the left and $g$ on the right yields



$$gHg^{-1} subset H implies H subset g^{-1}Hg$$



Since this is true for all $g in G$, we can substitute $g$ for $g^{-1}$, concluding



$$gHg^{-1} subset H subset gHg^{-1}$$



$$H = gHg^{-1}$$



This is equivalent to



$$gH = Hg$$






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

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    2












    $begingroup$

    Your proof seems correct to me.



    In fact, you can remove the finite index hypothesis. If $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $gin G$, then for each $gin G$ you also have
    $$
    H = g^{-1}(gHg^{-1})g subset g^{-1}Hg = g^{-1}H(g^{-1})^{-1} subset H,
    $$

    so we must have equality throughout, i. e. $H = g^{-1}Hg$ (for each $gin G$).



    More generally, for any subgroup $H$ of $G$ the following holds: the set $N:= { gin G mid gHg^{-1}subset H}$ is a subgroup of $G$ if and only if $gHg^{-1} = H$ for all $gin N$. (In that case $N$ is the normalizer of $H$ in $G$.)






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      That's brilliant, thank you. Now I feel stupid for not having come up with that immediately! But why would Herstein keep this result from the reader and only ask to prove one inclusion? And what about this thread math.stackexchange.com/questions/217601/… in which there seems to be a counterexample?
      $endgroup$
      – The Footprint
      Mar 14 at 12:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      In the answer of Brian M. Scott the set ${gin Gmid gHg^{-1} subset H}$ is not stable under inversion, hence not a group. It is only closed under composition.
      $endgroup$
      – Claudius
      Mar 14 at 12:40


















    2












    $begingroup$

    Your proof seems correct to me.



    In fact, you can remove the finite index hypothesis. If $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $gin G$, then for each $gin G$ you also have
    $$
    H = g^{-1}(gHg^{-1})g subset g^{-1}Hg = g^{-1}H(g^{-1})^{-1} subset H,
    $$

    so we must have equality throughout, i. e. $H = g^{-1}Hg$ (for each $gin G$).



    More generally, for any subgroup $H$ of $G$ the following holds: the set $N:= { gin G mid gHg^{-1}subset H}$ is a subgroup of $G$ if and only if $gHg^{-1} = H$ for all $gin N$. (In that case $N$ is the normalizer of $H$ in $G$.)






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      That's brilliant, thank you. Now I feel stupid for not having come up with that immediately! But why would Herstein keep this result from the reader and only ask to prove one inclusion? And what about this thread math.stackexchange.com/questions/217601/… in which there seems to be a counterexample?
      $endgroup$
      – The Footprint
      Mar 14 at 12:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      In the answer of Brian M. Scott the set ${gin Gmid gHg^{-1} subset H}$ is not stable under inversion, hence not a group. It is only closed under composition.
      $endgroup$
      – Claudius
      Mar 14 at 12:40
















    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    Your proof seems correct to me.



    In fact, you can remove the finite index hypothesis. If $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $gin G$, then for each $gin G$ you also have
    $$
    H = g^{-1}(gHg^{-1})g subset g^{-1}Hg = g^{-1}H(g^{-1})^{-1} subset H,
    $$

    so we must have equality throughout, i. e. $H = g^{-1}Hg$ (for each $gin G$).



    More generally, for any subgroup $H$ of $G$ the following holds: the set $N:= { gin G mid gHg^{-1}subset H}$ is a subgroup of $G$ if and only if $gHg^{-1} = H$ for all $gin N$. (In that case $N$ is the normalizer of $H$ in $G$.)






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Your proof seems correct to me.



    In fact, you can remove the finite index hypothesis. If $gHg^{-1} subset H$ for all $gin G$, then for each $gin G$ you also have
    $$
    H = g^{-1}(gHg^{-1})g subset g^{-1}Hg = g^{-1}H(g^{-1})^{-1} subset H,
    $$

    so we must have equality throughout, i. e. $H = g^{-1}Hg$ (for each $gin G$).



    More generally, for any subgroup $H$ of $G$ the following holds: the set $N:= { gin G mid gHg^{-1}subset H}$ is a subgroup of $G$ if and only if $gHg^{-1} = H$ for all $gin N$. (In that case $N$ is the normalizer of $H$ in $G$.)







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Mar 14 at 12:24

























    answered Mar 14 at 12:08









    ClaudiusClaudius

    3,9041616




    3,9041616












    • $begingroup$
      That's brilliant, thank you. Now I feel stupid for not having come up with that immediately! But why would Herstein keep this result from the reader and only ask to prove one inclusion? And what about this thread math.stackexchange.com/questions/217601/… in which there seems to be a counterexample?
      $endgroup$
      – The Footprint
      Mar 14 at 12:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      In the answer of Brian M. Scott the set ${gin Gmid gHg^{-1} subset H}$ is not stable under inversion, hence not a group. It is only closed under composition.
      $endgroup$
      – Claudius
      Mar 14 at 12:40




















    • $begingroup$
      That's brilliant, thank you. Now I feel stupid for not having come up with that immediately! But why would Herstein keep this result from the reader and only ask to prove one inclusion? And what about this thread math.stackexchange.com/questions/217601/… in which there seems to be a counterexample?
      $endgroup$
      – The Footprint
      Mar 14 at 12:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      In the answer of Brian M. Scott the set ${gin Gmid gHg^{-1} subset H}$ is not stable under inversion, hence not a group. It is only closed under composition.
      $endgroup$
      – Claudius
      Mar 14 at 12:40


















    $begingroup$
    That's brilliant, thank you. Now I feel stupid for not having come up with that immediately! But why would Herstein keep this result from the reader and only ask to prove one inclusion? And what about this thread math.stackexchange.com/questions/217601/… in which there seems to be a counterexample?
    $endgroup$
    – The Footprint
    Mar 14 at 12:36




    $begingroup$
    That's brilliant, thank you. Now I feel stupid for not having come up with that immediately! But why would Herstein keep this result from the reader and only ask to prove one inclusion? And what about this thread math.stackexchange.com/questions/217601/… in which there seems to be a counterexample?
    $endgroup$
    – The Footprint
    Mar 14 at 12:36




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    In the answer of Brian M. Scott the set ${gin Gmid gHg^{-1} subset H}$ is not stable under inversion, hence not a group. It is only closed under composition.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:40






    $begingroup$
    In the answer of Brian M. Scott the set ${gin Gmid gHg^{-1} subset H}$ is not stable under inversion, hence not a group. It is only closed under composition.
    $endgroup$
    – Claudius
    Mar 14 at 12:40













    2












    $begingroup$

    You don't need any additional hypotheses. Multiplying both sides by $g^{-1}$ on the left and $g$ on the right yields



    $$gHg^{-1} subset H implies H subset g^{-1}Hg$$



    Since this is true for all $g in G$, we can substitute $g$ for $g^{-1}$, concluding



    $$gHg^{-1} subset H subset gHg^{-1}$$



    $$H = gHg^{-1}$$



    This is equivalent to



    $$gH = Hg$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      You don't need any additional hypotheses. Multiplying both sides by $g^{-1}$ on the left and $g$ on the right yields



      $$gHg^{-1} subset H implies H subset g^{-1}Hg$$



      Since this is true for all $g in G$, we can substitute $g$ for $g^{-1}$, concluding



      $$gHg^{-1} subset H subset gHg^{-1}$$



      $$H = gHg^{-1}$$



      This is equivalent to



      $$gH = Hg$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        You don't need any additional hypotheses. Multiplying both sides by $g^{-1}$ on the left and $g$ on the right yields



        $$gHg^{-1} subset H implies H subset g^{-1}Hg$$



        Since this is true for all $g in G$, we can substitute $g$ for $g^{-1}$, concluding



        $$gHg^{-1} subset H subset gHg^{-1}$$



        $$H = gHg^{-1}$$



        This is equivalent to



        $$gH = Hg$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You don't need any additional hypotheses. Multiplying both sides by $g^{-1}$ on the left and $g$ on the right yields



        $$gHg^{-1} subset H implies H subset g^{-1}Hg$$



        Since this is true for all $g in G$, we can substitute $g$ for $g^{-1}$, concluding



        $$gHg^{-1} subset H subset gHg^{-1}$$



        $$H = gHg^{-1}$$



        This is equivalent to



        $$gH = Hg$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 14 at 12:21









        Alex G.Alex G.

        6,2581128




        6,2581128






























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